Constitutional question on Federal Government


PDA






m.i.sanders
February 25, 2003, 06:48 AM
This is just a matter of personal curiousity. What specifically grants the Federal Gov. the power to pass laws/rules/etc on various topics like local land use, the AWB, abortion, kidnapping, etc. As much as I can tell, if it doesn't relate to interstate commerce, do they really have that much authority?

If you enjoyed reading about "Constitutional question on Federal Government" here in TheHighRoad.org archive, you'll LOVE our community. Come join TheHighRoad.org today for the full version!
grampster
February 25, 2003, 02:14 PM
In the present day, the Federal Gubmint has as much power as it cares to exercise as long as the public, who elects their representatives, goes along with the mischief promulgated by those same reps, judges are appointed to the courts in direct proportion to their political correctness, activist quotient and willingness to subvert the Constitution and BoR, and finally we continue to support government schools in the same fashion that we do today.:banghead:

braindead0
February 25, 2003, 03:05 PM
Generally, they simply blackmail states into passing the laws they want by threatening to withhold highway funds, educations funds..etc. (funds they shouldn't have).

Federal laws technically only apply on federal property, but.. they've browbeat most (if not all) states into passing the same or similar laws.

I think that's part of the problem.

El Tejon
February 25, 2003, 04:47 PM
The "plenary power" of our friend the Commerce Clause=the big hammer of unlimited government.

If you enjoyed reading about "Constitutional question on Federal Government" here in TheHighRoad.org archive, you'll LOVE our community. Come join TheHighRoad.org today for the full version!