They are right...the 2A does NOT apply to "The People"


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Drjones
January 1, 2003, 09:28 PM
Well folks, I hate to break it to ya, but I just found in our very own BOR that the Second Amendment does NOT indeed apply to "The People", as you can plainly see here:

Amendment I
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to
assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

Amendment II
A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.

Amendment IV
The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause,
supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.


This one is particularly interesting:
Amendment IX
The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people.

Amendment X
The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.

Amendment XVII
Passed by Congress May 13, 1912. Ratified April 8, 1913.

Note: Article I, section 3, of the Constitution was modified by the 17th amendment.

The Senate of the United States shall be composed of two Senators from each State, elected by the people thereof, for six years; and each Senator shall have one vote. The electors in each State shall have the qualifications requisite for electors of the most numerous branch of the State legislatures.

When vacancies happen in the representation of any State in the Senate, the executive authority of such State shall issue writs of election to fill such vacancies: Provided, That the legislature of any State may empower the executive thereof to make temporary appointments until the people fill the vacancies by election as the legislature may direct.

I can keep going, you know. There are 10 more amendments...

This settles it: The Founding Fathers CLEARLY were NOT referring to the same "people" in the Second Amendment as in ALL the others!

Sheesh, what were we THINKING??? :rolleyes:

Wanna keep playing semantics? You may want to pay particular attention to the 9th Amendment, which clearly states that people such as yourself may NOT twist the meaning of the BOR to fit their warped needs. (That was my little rant at the end! :p )

Thought you might find this useful in your debates with the anti types...

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Standing Wolf
January 1, 2003, 10:24 PM
<sarcasm> I'm sure the founding fathers meant "special people" in the Second Amendment. </sarcasm>

4v50 Gary
January 1, 2003, 10:45 PM
Permit me to identify those "special" people: (1) Politicians - because they are our leaders and must fear assassination by a member of the proletariat; (2) News Media - to defend themselves when they go into dangerous places like war zones or bad neighborhoods - so they can bring the bad "news" into our homes; (3) Hollywood or TV stars - because they get stalked by fans; (4) Bodyguards - so they can keep protecting all of the above from the rest of us. :)

PATH
January 1, 2003, 10:49 PM
Just remember they can't lick us cause we're the "people.

Wasn't that from the Grapes of Wrath.

waterdog
January 1, 2003, 10:54 PM
i have made up my mind as to what it means, and I got 200 plus years of precedent setting activities by known Americans to back my thoughts.

So, the bureacracy can legislate to their hearts content, but, it won't change a thing in my mind.

waterdog

Blackhawk
January 1, 2003, 10:57 PM
That the legislature of any State may empower the executive thereof to make temporary appointments until the people fill the vacancies by election as the legislature may direct. In reading that afresh, it dawned on me that it clearly distinguishes "the people" from "the legislature" of a state. That's very interesting from a judicial construction perspective.

A lot of the 2A "collective rights" theorists depend on the two terms being synonymous. However, as recently as 1913, "the people" through their elected legislatures which ratified the amendment agreed that "the people" are distinguished from "the legislatures" or the states.

Velly, velly INteresssteeng...! :neener:

waynzwld
January 1, 2003, 10:59 PM
that is why everything written in the Constitution is gray, hey, it's a "living" document. :rolleyes:

Drjones
January 1, 2003, 11:01 PM
Don't forget its "Dated" too...

The fathers NEVER would have allowed us stupid people to have AK's and semi-auto handguns! :rolleyes:

In that spirit, turn in your computer, telephone, radio, and TV, you liberal idiot. :neener: :evil:

Cal4D4
January 1, 2003, 11:08 PM
Sure wish I was special. In Redondo Beach a permit is required from Chief of Police if I want to shoot a BB gun in my garage.:(

Bruce H
January 2, 2003, 07:20 AM
Let them get a rule from the supreme court stating the people means that and see what happens. I suspect they will find that it has a completely different meaning and we will be rid of several oxygen consuming mutants.

tyme
January 2, 2003, 08:09 AM
that is why everything written in the Constitution is gray, hey, it's a "living" document.The only thing about the Constitution that's grey is the paper it's written on... and it's more brownish yellow than grey.

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