Question about machine guns


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Lord Soth
January 11, 2003, 07:08 PM
Is it legal to take any (legal) gun manfactured before 1986 and make it fully automatic assuming one has a class 3 liscense?

Thanks!

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P95Carry
January 11, 2003, 07:38 PM
IIRC the answer is NO! The Class III will only allow you to purchase and own something from before then, already in existence as full auto.

El Tejon
January 11, 2003, 08:12 PM
LS, it's kind of involved, but short answer is no. Long answer, it depends on a couple different things, but may be yes.

One would need a Class 2 license (Class 3 refers to the classification of dealer, not the weapon). If you had a Class 2 you may not manufacture a emmagee after May 19, 1986 for non-LE or non-militree use. (Sooo, it could be yes depending on a couple of things).

Class 3 refers to a dealer in Title II or NFA weaponry. Errornet references to "Class III" or "Class 3" bug me, but I'm over it.

Title I--non-NFA weapons, Title II--NFA weapons

Title I & II come from the reclassification of the NFA in the SSA of `68.

HTH.

Hkmp5sd
January 12, 2003, 11:35 AM
The way the law works is that for a normal civilian to legally own a machinegun, that machinegun must have been registered with ATF prior to 05/19/86. That's the catch. Obviously there are a bunch of machineguns made prior to the '86 ban, BUT you cannot now register them. Hence, they are illegal to own.

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