I will start out by stating probably best to pay for something in full and then such problems don't arise, but here is the situation:
An elderly owner of a large collection wishes to dispose of his collection for estate purposes. Given the size of his collection, he agreed to let me, and others, pick out several firearms and pay on them over 6 months. Recently went to pick these up. The owner could not find one that I paid for. He stated he had sold what was left of the collection to a dealer. A phone call was made. The dealer confirmed he had bought said firearm, wasn't sure he still had it. A few days later, he calls the elderly owner and states he has sold it but he has a record of the new owner. The elderly owner does not wish to press the matter. Of course, I was reimbursed the money for the missing firearm. The record of sale or this transaction is an email from him confirming that he is holding this firearm for me, with its description and serial number, pending full payment for all on layaway by the end of July. This firearm is an antique, so no paperwork involved.
So, I guess this is a "lesson learned". Pay in full and such problems don't arise. I suppose nothing further really can be done at this point. I suppose that I need to put myself in the shoes of the dealer's customer and how he might feel if that firearm wasn't actually his.
The few minor problems here. I bought these several firearms and negotiated hard, and I got this missing firearm relatively cheaper to the rest, reasoning that if I paid a little more for others, the average cost was lowered by this one. Slightly, but not by much.
Also, the dealer's story sounds slightly suspect. Maybe that is my perception. But, of course, if he had to return this firearm, one less firearm to profit from the sale of.
Thoughts?
An elderly owner of a large collection wishes to dispose of his collection for estate purposes. Given the size of his collection, he agreed to let me, and others, pick out several firearms and pay on them over 6 months. Recently went to pick these up. The owner could not find one that I paid for. He stated he had sold what was left of the collection to a dealer. A phone call was made. The dealer confirmed he had bought said firearm, wasn't sure he still had it. A few days later, he calls the elderly owner and states he has sold it but he has a record of the new owner. The elderly owner does not wish to press the matter. Of course, I was reimbursed the money for the missing firearm. The record of sale or this transaction is an email from him confirming that he is holding this firearm for me, with its description and serial number, pending full payment for all on layaway by the end of July. This firearm is an antique, so no paperwork involved.
So, I guess this is a "lesson learned". Pay in full and such problems don't arise. I suppose nothing further really can be done at this point. I suppose that I need to put myself in the shoes of the dealer's customer and how he might feel if that firearm wasn't actually his.
The few minor problems here. I bought these several firearms and negotiated hard, and I got this missing firearm relatively cheaper to the rest, reasoning that if I paid a little more for others, the average cost was lowered by this one. Slightly, but not by much.
Also, the dealer's story sounds slightly suspect. Maybe that is my perception. But, of course, if he had to return this firearm, one less firearm to profit from the sale of.
Thoughts?