An individual stating an opinion that a particular law is unconstitutional is really nothing more than a misuse of the word as a general epithet expressing disapproval.
Frank Ettin, while I appreciate your efforts to inform the membership here on your understanding of the legalities involved, I think you're missing a point:
Does the Constitution *give* us the RKBA, or does it *guarantee* the RKBA?
To a lawyer, it may not matter.
To our founding fathers (some of whom were lawyers), it apparently mattered quite a lot. They asserted that they had been "endowed by their Creator" with rights, and that if their government "became destructive" of those rights then they had the right to "alter or abolish" it.
The wording in the Constitution is often quite interesting. The 1A states that "Congress shall make no law... abridging the freedom of speech..." A specific ban on activity by Congress. The 2A, however, states "...the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed." Note "the right;" referring as if to something that *already exists.* Not "Congress shall make no law abridging the freedom of the people to keep and bear arms."
If the Founders considered that many of their rights did not come from the government, but were already present, and if the Constitution refers to a right as already existing (and not to be infringed), how can a law infringing on that right be unconstitutional only if a court has ruled it so?
Would the Founders have abided by a law that said they did not have the right to "alter or abolish" their government? Are we to believe that they gave us a system (on their 2nd try, let's not forget) that allows unalienable rights to be limited until such time as a court rules that limit improper?
I do not deny that *in practice*, *today*, that is the system we have. I also do not deny that violation of a law, regardless of its constitutionality, may have serious real-world consequences regardless of any legal theories held by the violator of that law.
However you seem to be arguing that this system is the proper system, and is what the founders intended when they crafted the Constitution. You appear to be arguing that the real determination of rights comes from the courts, not the people, and thus that those rights can change over time (since SCOTUS can overturn its own rulings).
If a right can be changed, how can it be "unalienable"?
Do we have the *right* to keep and bear arms, or do we have the permission of the courts until such time as the courts change their mind?