Carl N. Brown
Member
Straw man purchase? I'd rather purchase a gun.
My son wanted a gun for Christmas and I did a check on
"straw sales" and found the following about a recent court case:
Technically, this is valid only for the Fifth Circuit jurisdiction.
New York or California would probably have their knickers in bind.
It appears that if the son can legally own a gun, the father can
buy the gun as a gift to his son, just as I could legally buy a
gun as a gift for my son with my daughter-in-law's money.
SO EVERYONE TAKE A DEEP BREATH AND CHILL OUT.
My son wanted a gun for Christmas and I did a check on
"straw sales" and found the following about a recent court case:
CHARGE:
"E. Count 6--False Statement to a Licensee in the Acquisition
of a Firearm, Aiding and Abetting
Count 6 of the indictment charged Polk with aiding and abet-
ting the purchase of a firearm through a false and fictitious
statement. In particular, the Government alleged that Polk
purchased weapons from Liberty Sports through Davidson, a
"straw purchaser." Such purchases, argues the Government,
violate 18 U.S.C. 167; 922(a)(6) because they involve the buyer
making a false statement about the true purchaser of the weapon(s)."
5TH CIRCUIT COURT RULING:
"We find that the Government's construction of 167; 922(a)(6)
sweeps too broadly so that the evidence is insufficient to
support a conviction on Count 6.(7)
Although 167; 922(a)(6) on its face does not prohibit "straw
purchases," we have nonetheless held that such transactions
violate 167; 922(a)(6). See, e.g., United States v. Ortiz-Loya,
777 F.2d 973, 979 (5th Cir. 1985). It is clear to us--indeed,
the plain language of the statute compels the conclusion--that
167; 922(a)(6) criminalizes false statements that are intended
to deceive federal firearms dealers with respect to facts material
to the "lawfulness of the sale" of firearms. (Emphasis added.)
Thus, if the true purchaser can lawfully purchase a
firearm directly, 167; 922(a)(6) liability (under a "straw
purchase" theory) does not attach.
See, e.g., Barrett v. United States, 423 U.S. 212, 220, 96 S.Ct.
498, 503, 46 L.Ed.2d 450 (1976) (holding that purpose of
167; 922(a)( 6) was "'to make it possible to keep firearms
out of the hands of those not legally entitled to possess them
because of age, criminal background, or incompetency'"
(quoting S.Rep. No. 1501, 90th Cong., 2d Sess. 22 (1968) U.S. Code
Cong. & Admin. News 1968 p. 4410)); United States v. Moore,
109 F.3d 1456, 1460-61 (9th Cir. 1997) (en banc), petition for
cert. filed, ---- U.S.L.W. ---- (U.S. June 2, 1997) (No. 96-9227);
United States v. White, 451 F.2d 696, 699 (5th Cir. 1971)
("One goal sought by Congress [through 167; 922(a)(6)] was control
over the ease with which criminals may acquire firearms."), cert.
denied, 405 U.S. 998, 92 S.Ct. 1268, 31 L.Ed.2d 468 (1972).(8) "
Technically, this is valid only for the Fifth Circuit jurisdiction.
New York or California would probably have their knickers in bind.
It appears that if the son can legally own a gun, the father can
buy the gun as a gift to his son, just as I could legally buy a
gun as a gift for my son with my daughter-in-law's money.
SO EVERYONE TAKE A DEEP BREATH AND CHILL OUT.