BobMcG said:
That being said, I wouldn't doubt that there would be a percentage of people who'd object to say a state mandated firearms safety course requirement before being allowed to purchase a first firearm. Don't think that I'm in favor of more government bureaucracy either because I think the less government in our lives, the better. The only reason I mention it though is due to the fact that I know shooters in a lot of states (mine included) that are also hunters (me included) had to under go a firearms safety and shooting course in order to get a hunting license in the first place. It doesn't guarantee an accident free environment but it's a better start than a lot of non-hunters get. (And yes, obviously, military & LEO training are other good places to form a foundation for safety.)
BTW: In NY (I had to) and probably other states, you also undergo other training when you go for your pistol license.
Bob, you are correct. I, for one, would object. I am not saying that an education course isn't a good idea. If the states wish to establish such and make them available
on an optional, voluntary basis to those who wish to take it, I would be all in favor of that.
But, as a direct descendent of one of the dudes who set up the Constitution and the Bill of Rights, I am what some call an "originalist" and what others call a "strict constructionist." The 2nd Amendment says that the right "of the people" to keep and bear arms SHALL NOT BE INFRINGED. It does
not say that the right "of those people who have taken a mandatory state class" to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed. You really can't have it both ways. Either you accept the 2nd Amendment as the open-ended, all-encompassing statement that it is, or you become just like the anti-gun groups and all you can argue about is how much of an infringement you are willing to tolerate.
Having to take a class before being allowed to purchase a firearm IS an infringement. Having the take out a license/permit before carrying a concealed handgun IS an infringement. That's the bottom line. Regardless of what judges and politicians try to tell you today, the 2nd Amendment does not make any mention of "subject to reasonable restrictions." A restriction is an infringement. We must keep this point firmly in mind. The 2nd Amendment doesn't say that the RKBA "shall not be unreasonably infringed," it says that it shall not be infringed. Period.
But (I hear you asking), how do we know the Founding Fathers didn't intend for the 2nd Amendment to allow for "reasonable" restrictions (
i.e. infringements)? Simple -- they didn't say so. They were educated men, and they could string words together into coherent sentences. In discussing the right of the People to be secure against government intrusions into their privacy, they wrote that the people shall be secure against "unreasonable" search and seizure. See, that proves they knew the word. Thus, if they had intended for the 2nd to say that the RKBA should not be "unreasonably" infringed, it's is "reasonable" from the black-and-white evidence that they knew to word to suppose that, had they so intended, they would have used the word "unreasonable" in the 2nd Amendment. They did not. This tells us that they did
not intend for the 2nd to be subject to "reasonable [infringements].