I've got a question about the 2 Supreme Court decisions regarding Washington, D.C. And Chicago and future decisions if they ever occur.
We here all the time that if a S-C negative decision can be made in the near future regarding firearms, that our rights to firearms will be gone forever. Well, my question is this. How can that be true if a new decision can be made to over ride the two victories I spoke of above? How would a new negative decision be "forever" if the two victories above can ba reversed? This does not make sense to me at all. We here of precedents that were set over a hundred years ago that guarantee a right. Here we are told the precedents set in D. C. and Chicago could be eliminated.
Somebody please explain this to me.
We here all the time that if a S-C negative decision can be made in the near future regarding firearms, that our rights to firearms will be gone forever. Well, my question is this. How can that be true if a new decision can be made to over ride the two victories I spoke of above? How would a new negative decision be "forever" if the two victories above can ba reversed? This does not make sense to me at all. We here of precedents that were set over a hundred years ago that guarantee a right. Here we are told the precedents set in D. C. and Chicago could be eliminated.
Somebody please explain this to me.