Pressure question...

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km101

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Most of the more recent reloading data that I see gives pressure data in PSI (pounds per square inch), but a lot of the published data is in CUP (copper units of pressure). I know that PSI uses a strain gage and CUP uses a copper crush disk, but is there any way to correlate the two results? Perhaps a formula to convert CUP to PSI or vice versa?

I have not been able to get a lot of information about this subject. If anyone can post articles or sources I would really appreciate it!

Ken
 
Two completely different systems of measurement.
CUP places a strip of copper between the case and chamber. The thickness is then measured for compression. This yields a measurement that gives an average of the pressure, which is basically one point in time during combustion.
PSI uses modern strain gauges with computers. This allows measurement over time during combustion. Results are far more precise and yield the actual maximum pressure to be obtained.

The two methods are comparable to comparing apples and oranges. Yes, they are comparable. An apple and orange are similar in shape, but the differences are difficult to judge.
The PSI measure is far more precise, and have changed reloading. In some cases larger powder charges are allowed, but in many charges are reduced. The charges with CUP are still good to use, but the PSI is preferred.
As always, start low and work up on the powder charge.
 
Is there a correlation ? YES (increases in CUP --> increases in PSI)
Is there an exact formula ? NO (individual cartridges test out differently when it comes to assigning CUP vs PSI ratings)

Take a look here for best explanation and to get an understanding feel:
:https://www.shootingsoftware.com/ftp/psicuparticle2.pdf


.
We had a very robust discussion of that paper (the author is a member here) and the subject of correlating the piezo-transducer to copper-crusher pressure measurements a few months ago and IMHO that paper is dangerously wrong. Plug 357 Mag into those formula's and see how wrong it gets. I won't repeat all the arguments here but will link to that older discussion for the OP and anyone else that wants to read the rather in depth discussion we delved into there.

https://www.thehighroad.org/index.php?threads/converting-cup-to-psi.847461/
 
What part of correlation/Yes was unclear ?
What part of exact formula/No was obscure ?

That the formula was 'useful' -- within its very clear-stated error bounds -- is indisputable.
That people of this day and age want exactness w/o bothering to understand what lies beneath -- is also indisputable.
 
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