Okay, I've been trumped.

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davek

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Actually, I opened my big mouth and trumped myself.

On another board, debating with an anti, I made the bold claim that drug/gang related gun violence outstriped domestic gun violence in the U.S.

Well, the anti called me on it and asked for numbers. I never saw that coming because I thought that was a given. Turns out the anti in question lives in Australia, so I'll give her the benefit of the doubt. :rolleyes:

At any rate, now I look like a blowhard idiot because I can't find any hard numbers of gun related drug/gang violence vs. gun related domestic violence.

1. Am I wrong?

2. If not, can anyone here know of any numbers that would support my case?

Thanks.
 
You may actually be wrong. Im not sure one way or the other though. But, it seems that most gang violence around here involves edged/blunt weapons. There are occasional gang related shootings. But, it seems that a lot of idiots shoot each other over traffic incidents and domestic arguments. I'd be very interested to see a breakdown of the numbers though.
 
On another board, debating with an anti, I made the bold claim that drug/gang related gun violence outstriped domestic gun violence in the U.S



According to the Bureau of Justice statistics overall, "About 11% of murder victims were determined to have been killed by an intimate"

*Spouses and family members made up about 15% of all victims
*About one third of the victims were acquaintances of the assailant
*In 14% of all murders, the victim and the offender were strangers
*The victim/offender relationship was undetermined in about one third
of homicides.

http://www.ojp.usdoj.gov/bjs/homicide/intimates.htm


and (I added bold to indicate that the "gangland" homicides as defined by the BOJ may be different that what you were asserting in your argument)

The number of homicides --

*in which the circumstances were unknown has tripled since 1976
resulting from arguments has declined but remains the most frequently cited circumstance
*that occurred during the commission of another felony like a robbery or burglary has declined since 1991
*involving adult or juvenile gang violence has increased more than six fold since 1976

Note: Arguments include brawls due to the influence of narcotics or alcohol, disagreements about money or property and other arguments.

Felony types include homicides committed during a rape, robbery, burglary, theft, motor vehicle theft, arson, and violations of prostitution and commercial vice laws, other sex offenses, narcotic drug laws, and gambling laws. Gang homicides include gangland killings and juvenile gang killings.

http://www.ojp.usdoj.gov/bjs/homicide/circumst.htm

circumst.gif
 
Scroll down to Table 4 for drug-related homicides through 1998:
http://www.whitehousedrugpolicy.gov/publications/factsht/crime/

Initimate partner homicides were around 11% -- http://www.ojp.usdoj.gov/bjs/homicide/intimates.htm

According to FBI UCR's gang-related homicides are usually around 1%. However, I think that is a misleading number since a larger percentage than that of homicide offenders are gang members, but the homicide itself may not have been classified as a gang-related killing. Ie., a gang member killing a non-gang member during an argument, assault, etc.
 
It'd make sense to me. I don't know anybody that's shot somebody in a domestic violence situation. I do know people that have used firearms in drug related activities... and he's a cousin.
 
That's quite a phrase. I'm not sure what it means.

Would "gun-related domestic violence" include strangling someone with a boresnake or perhaps poisoning them with Hoppe's No. 9?

brad cook
 
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