Constitutional Question

Status
Not open for further replies.

tepin

Member
Joined
Jun 21, 2006
Messages
572
Location
AZ
If someone in government uses facebook as an extension of his or her political office to further his or her political agenda (anti-2A) and said politician bans a fb user for respectfully posting factual opposing views, is this politician violating the users 1A rights?
 
The Constitutional protection of the right to free speech means that one cannot be prosecuted for the content of his "speech" (or other self-expressive media.)

Facebook is, as has been pointed out, a private entity, and can implement its own rules regarding media content without infringing on those 1-A protections.
 
It belongs to the politician and he/she controls access.

But one can safely assume that ANY politician who uses Facebook or any other such medium is doing it for political gain, to spread propaganda, raise funds, and generally promote himself/herself. And the politician is not going to want any arguments or discussion that goes against those goals. Period.

Jim
 
If a politician was having a dinner gathering at their home of powerful people to further his or her political ambitions, and the politician was talking about item X...and you as a guest in this person's home stated you believe the opposite on item X, the politician would be free to ask you to leave his or her house.

his or her facebook page = his or her house
 
Amendment I

"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances."
 
Status
Not open for further replies.