When a sentence like, "A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed," is diagrammed and read as it is actually written it is very clear what it actually means. There are two independent clauses in the sentence and the second one is absolutely not dependent on the first for a correct interpretation. It could stand on it's own and the meaning is not changed by the first clause.
I don't mean to be pedantic here, but there are in fact
not two independent clauses. This means that we either have 1.) a dependent clause started by a subordinating conjunction or relative pronoun or 2.) a collection of words without a subject-verb pair.
Let's read the second part of the sentence as "the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed." That is an independent clause, with "right" functioning as the subject and "shall be infringed" functioning as the verb (before anyone gets upset about the lack of "not," it is not there because it is always an adverb).
That leaves us with "A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State." There is no verb in there. "Being," in case you are curious, is a participle. Hence, what we have is not a clause, much less an independent one.
As to this...
(thank you, Cee Zee, for reminding members that in English the meaning/message of an independent clause is not altered by an associated dependent clause)
...I would like to know why we need to be reminded of this, since it's untrue. The Second Amendment lacks a dependent clause. It does not, as I demonstrated above, even have two clauses.
But, for the sake of argument, let's consider the proposition that "in English the meaning/message of an independent clause is not altered by an associated dependent clause." Consider saying this to one of your family members tonight: "If I win the lottery (dependent clause), I will quit my job tomorrow (independent clause)." I think you will receive a different reaction if you do not include the dependent clause, saying instead that "I will quit my job tomorrow." Indeed, the meaning of the second clause in the first sentence is entirely conditional on the first clause. It's called the subjunctive. For more on that, feel you may refer to Bryan Garner's Modern American Usage (it's on 780) or a usage guide of comparable authority.
We can take this a step further, though, because I believe your contention is that an independent clause cannot be modified by other parts of the sentence. Let's consider the following example: "Businessmen embezzling from their companies should be jailed." The participial phrase there does indeed modify the subject of the clause, changing the meaning entirely. If we were to forgo the "embezzling from their companies," we would have an entirely different sentence.
I will assume that your mention of "reminding" us was simply friendly and not condescending.
Onward. Let's consider another proposition.
But I can use English to make my meaning clear if I have the requisite skills. I can say. "Today I saw Mr. Smith help an elderly woman carry her groceries to the bus and then decline her offer of money for his action." You can read that and decide for yourself whether Mr. Smith is a "nice" man. He might or might not be. But my intention was not to make an assessment of his overall "niceness." All I did was relate what he did, and that is completely clear.
Indeed, the meaning of that sentence is clear. Here's where it gets murky: "But my intention was not to make an assessment of his overall 'niceness.' All I did was relate what he did, and that is completely clear." How are we supposed to know what your intention was in relating said sentence? Maybe it was for entertainment. Or maybe you were providing an assessment of his character. We don't know, but unless you are the sort of person who walks around making random comments to others, it's safe to assume that you have a reason for telling us. (Seems like we might have to do a interpretation of why you communicated this to us...) That is to say, the rhetorical context matters.
And when you move away from describing simple actions to more abstract concepts like "freedom," what you're communicating becomes more complex. ("Freedom," by the way, has fifteen different definitions, not including phrases.) Readers are forced to choose between multiple meanings, depending on context; sometimes, multiple meanings could grammatically and contextually make sense. (See my previous post on "regulation.")
Almost the last thought.
And JudgeHolden10, the English language is very much a language with a mathematical precision. There may be words with multiple definitions but they rarely make a sentence unclear.
The proposition that "English language is very much a language with a mathematical precision" is patently untrue. As in my previous example with addition, mathematics is a pure symbolic language. There is no other way to "interpret" a "+" than as addition. (Similar to the stop sign mentioned by another poster, who was entirely correct in that instance.)
Let's get more abstract here. In order to determine the meaning of a word, one looks to a dictionary, where one finds...more words. (Mathematics, by the way, does not have that problem because of its one-to-one correspondence of symbol to meaning.) Keep looking up those definitions of definitions. Where do you end? At some word that ultimately needs no definition? From where would that come, exactly? After all,
dictionaries are written by humans; they don't exist as revealed truth from some alternate universe or English deity. And even words are created by humans. Shakespeare himself added something like 1,500 words to English.
To be fair, this is a problem that has puzzled other writers. George Orwell, at the end of "Politics and the English Language," (a delightful read if you have the time; I suspect you will enjoy it), contemplates this very problem. Here is his solution: "What is above all needed is to let the meaning choose the word, and not the other way around. In prose, the worst thing one can do with words is surrender to them. When you think of a concrete object, you think wordlessly, and then, if you want to describe the thing you have been visualizing you probably hunt about until you find the exact words that seem to fit it. When you think of something abstract you are more inclined to use words from the start, and unless you make a conscious effort to prevent it, the existing dialect will come rushing in and do the job for you, at the expense of blurring or even changing your meaning.
Probably it is better to put off using words as long as possible and get one's meaning as clear as one can through pictures and sensations [italics mine]." Even a perceptive thinker like Orwell devises an impossible solution to an intractable problem: use only pictures and sensations to think...and communicate them how, exactly? Once the act of attempting to communicate an abstraction commences, the possibility of interpretation arises.
Last thought, since I've done some reading in this area.
The precision of a language has become a common topic among linguists and economists alike. English has far more words than most other languages for a reason.
What linguist or economist do you know who claims English is more precise than other languages? And on what evidence would they base that claim? It's going to be difficult or impossible to quantify that. And the way in which English grows and accumulates words is evidence of the incredible flexibility of the language, not its precision.
there is that thing about English being the language of worldwide commerce. Certainly a lot of that is due to the remnants of British Empire. After all they did rule both India and China which made the language a common language in much of the world's population. But if you go to countries like Japan or the eastern European countries it is almost assured you can find people who speak English. That isn't true for any other language I know.
You actually nailed two great reasons for the predominance of English across the globe. "Commerce" is the first. The ascendance of the United States in the twentieth century to an economic superpower is much of the reason English is spoken in other countries. China, for example, trades a lot with the U.S.; there are millions of Chinese people learning to speak English because it's lucrative. If Portugal were the country that became an economic superpower after World War II, those Chinese people would be learning Portuguese. The other reason ("remnants of the British empire") is also a contributing factor. It's not the amazing precision of our language.
I love English. I find it fascinating, so I am not denigrating the language or the Founders or any one particular understanding of their writing.
To return to our original topic, I don't care about persuading anyone as to a correct "reading" of the Second Amendment. I just want people to acknowledge the complexity of documents that we sometimes assume, with ironclad certainty, that we understand.
Methinks I am going to have to bow out of this one. I sense that we're starting to move in circles away from our original topic. Thanks for the polite but firm responses, everyone.