This is one of the things I like to point out when I argue this subject; when most anti-gunners "think" about this subject, for them, they see "more guns equals more murders", and that's as far as they go with it. However, I point out that Americans kill each other more often with NON-GUN means than Canadians kill each other with all means combined; does this mean that Americans have more arms and legs than Canadians do, or is there likely some other mechanism at work here? Even if no-one was ever killed in the US with a gun ever again, the US murder rate (the number of murders per 100,000 population) would STILL be higher than the Canadian rate, and guns and gun control are totally irrelevant to that. The really shocking thing in regards to the US murder rate is how it is so stratified; half of all murders in the US are committed by a relatively tiny cohort (young black males between the ages of 14 and 24) and the vast majority of this cohort can't buy or possess a gun legally to begin with. That group makes up less than 3% of the US population, so why are they committing half of all murders in the US? They certainly don't own half of all GUNS in the US (they wouldn't be close to that even if each of them owned THREE guns). This is the problem REALLY at play in the US, but no solutions will be forthcoming because of the political realities at work; Democrats won't do anything other than call for more "gun control" because they DEPEND on that identifiable voting block, and Republicans won't take a serious look at the problem because they know they'd be crucified as racists if they did.