Background: I live in the state of Florida. Florida has the Castle Doctrine for homes. I interpret the law to mean that anyone who forcefully and without authorization enters your dwelling has forfeited their life, for whatever reason.
In the course of working directly with attorneys over more than two decades, I've learned that it is extremely unwise for a lay person to try to interpret any law on the basis of dictionary definitions without a founding in legal concepts and theory, without knowledge of the legal context in which said law operates, without an appreciation of case law, and without knowing the legal terms of art.
Shorter version: do not interpret any law to mean anything and then rely on that interpretation unless you have the benefit of a legal eduction, access to the relevant case law, and some experience in the practice.
What the law (Florida Statutes, Section 776.013) says is that a person "is
presumed to have held a
reasonable fear of imminent peril of death or great bodily harm to himself or herself or another when using defensive force that is intended or likely to cause death or great bodily harm to another if...the person against whom the defensive force was used was in the process of unlawfully and forcefully entering, or had unlawfully and forcibly entered, a dwelling, residence, or occupied vehicle...".
The intent, I think, is to relieve from that person the obligation to produce other evidence to show that there was reason to have held the aforementioned reasonable fear if an intruder had unlawfully and forcibly entered an occupied dwelling. Without that provision, a court might require a shooter to provide evidence that an assailant had the ability, opportunity, and intent of causing great harm, even though he had just broken trough the door of an occupied domicile. That's what led to the enactment of a castle law where I live.
Now suppose that there is other evidence that, notwithstanding the fact of entry, the occupant no longer had reason to hold said fear? Do you know the intent of the legislators on that? Do you know the legal theory? Have courts ever been faced with that determination?
Well, if they have not, I recommend strongly against becoming the first test case.
I don't think this is a legal matter if he's sill in the house, but more of a moral issue.
I wouldn't want to wager on that.
I wouldn't bet a nickel on it, much less my record, my fortune, and my personal freedom.
Absolutely not!
Now, you might get by with shooting someone who is on the way out of your house, and you might not. If you do and others follow suit, you might expect to see the law amended. The obvious intent of the law was to remove an unreasonable burden of proof of self defense from the occupant of a residence that has been breached, not to legalize the administration, by individual citizens, of justice to thieves in a proportion that exceeds that which would be applied in the course of due process.