TexasRifleman
Moderator Emeritus
In the several locked threads people keep bringing up the "this was in the daytime so the law doesn't apply" argument.
Just to clear this up here is the Texas Penal Code relating to this.
I have placed some words in bold and it is necessary to have a rudimentary understanding of sentence structure and comma use.
This shooting does not have to happen at night to be justified.
I'm tired of some folks misquoting this statute because this incident happened in the daytime.
No debates on morality here, this is a grammar discussion please.
Does anyone have a valid reason why they think the nighttime restriction still applies?
OK. The operative piece of this is:
So we have a list of crimes here. ONLY theft and criminal mischief need to be occurring at night for this statute to apply. Arson, burglary, robbery, and aggravated robbery, as well as fleeing with property after committing them are not touched by the nighttime restriction. That ONLY applies to theft and criminal mischief. If it applied to all of them then the last 2 would not have a separate calling out of the nighttime restriction.
Breaking into an unoccupied house is Burglary, not theft.
There is no nighttime restriction to be within the Texas code here whatsoever .
Legal types, am I correct?
Just to clear this up here is the Texas Penal Code relating to this.
I have placed some words in bold and it is necessary to have a rudimentary understanding of sentence structure and comma use.
This shooting does not have to happen at night to be justified.
I'm tired of some folks misquoting this statute because this incident happened in the daytime.
No debates on morality here, this is a grammar discussion please.
Does anyone have a valid reason why they think the nighttime restriction still applies?
§ 9.42. DEADLY FORCE TO PROTECT PROPERTY. A person is
justified in using deadly force against another to protect land or
tangible, movable property:
(1) if he would be justified in using force against the
other under Section 9.41; and
(2) when and to the degree he reasonably believes the
deadly force is immediately necessary:
(A) to prevent the other's imminent commission of
arson, burglary, robbery, aggravated robbery, theft during the
nighttime, or criminal mischief during the nighttime; or
(B) to prevent the other who is fleeing
immediately after committing burglary, robbery, aggravated
robbery, or theft during the nighttime from escaping with the
property; and
(3) he reasonably believes that:
(A) the land or property cannot be protected or
recovered by any other means; or
(B) the use of force other than deadly force to
protect or recover the land or property would expose the actor or
another to a substantial risk of death or serious bodily injury.
OK. The operative piece of this is:
(A) to prevent the other's imminent commission of
arson, burglary, robbery, aggravated robbery, theft during the
nighttime, or criminal mischief during the nighttime; or
(B) to prevent the other who is fleeing
immediately after committing burglary, robbery, aggravated
robbery, or theft during the nighttime from escaping with the
property;
So we have a list of crimes here. ONLY theft and criminal mischief need to be occurring at night for this statute to apply. Arson, burglary, robbery, and aggravated robbery, as well as fleeing with property after committing them are not touched by the nighttime restriction. That ONLY applies to theft and criminal mischief. If it applied to all of them then the last 2 would not have a separate calling out of the nighttime restriction.
Breaking into an unoccupied house is Burglary, not theft.
There is no nighttime restriction to be within the Texas code here whatsoever .
Legal types, am I correct?
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