Background: Here's 922(o) (Better known as the machine gun ban of 1986):
Here's the link to the decision: Findlaw Link
Here's some quotes:
Did the 9th Circuit get one right? Am I reading this correctly as saying that 922(o) is unconstitutional, and thus null and void?
Kharn
(o)(1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), it shall be unlawful
for any person to transfer or possess a machinegun.
(2) This subsection does not apply with respect to -
(A) a transfer to or by, or possession by or under the
authority of, the United States or any department or agency
thereof or a State, or a department, agency, or political
subdivision thereof; or
(B) any lawful transfer or lawful possession of a machinegun
that was lawfully possessed before the date this subsection takes
effect.
Here's the link to the decision: Findlaw Link
Here's some quotes:
"Based on the four-factor Morrison test, section 922(o) cannot be viewed as having a substantial effect on interstate commerce. We therefore conclude that secion 922(o) is unconstitutional as applied to Stewart"
"we reverse Stewart's conviction for machinegun possession under section 922(o) as an unlawful extension of Congress's commerce power and affirm his conviction for possession of firearm by a felon"
Did the 9th Circuit get one right? Am I reading this correctly as saying that 922(o) is unconstitutional, and thus null and void?
Kharn