DocRock
member
Humor me. It's a discussion, not an assertion. The question is rather Jesuitical and has no bearing on politics, so they need not enter the discussion.
The Heller decision asserted that the right to keep and bear arms is an individual right, not collective. Each and every person meeting the criteria set forth in a form 4473 has an individual right to keep and bear arms. They lose that right upon conviction of various offenses (let's leave the 'suspension ' of that right under 'Red Flag' laws aside, if we can).
If I, as an individual, possess a right today and, at some time in the near future, a legislative body intends to strip me of my right, or restrict my individual right, on utilitarian grounds, there is usually some concept under the law that the alleged good has to merit the restriction envisaged. Greater legal minds than mine, perhaps those who remember their Bentham better than I do, will hopefully expand.
I have an individual right to keep and bear firearms. Let us say that in my jurisdiction, I have had no other restrictions beyond those in the NFA and GCA. In this jurisdiction, I own several semi-automatic rifles with vast capacity magazines.
The legislature of this jurisdiction takes the view that such firearms are a danger to the public because criminals have used such firearms to commit crimes. Therefore, they draft legislation that will strip me of my right or severely limit my right to keep and bear such firearms as I own.
The question for discussion, rather than immediate dismissal, is whether, regardless of the Second Amendment's prohibition on legislation that would infringe on my individual right to keep and bear arms, a legislature can strip an individual of his or her rights , or restrict them, for utilitarian purposes (the diminution of gun homicide) without demonstrating the utilitarian benefits on a case by case basis?
The legislature is, in effect, saying that the prior individual right to own and bear an AR15, for example, may be legitimately restricted because of the threat that the individual poses to others by owning said firearm. The legislature is, in effect, posing that each individual possessing such a firearm represents a risk to others. Since it is an individual right that is being restricted on the basis of an assessment of threat to others, and since that threat can only be realized through the commission of a crime (the discharge of a firearm at others in a non-justifiable manner), does the legislation not constitute an accusation of criminal intent on the part of every individual impacted by the legislation? How is the restriction of a right, the utility of which can only be realized through the stopping of a criminal act, be possible without accusing those being restricted of criminal intent? And if it is an accusation of criminal intent, should not each person thus accused have the right to trial by jury and the right to face their accuser in court?
Bob owns an AR15. The legislature believes that Bob's ownership of the AR15 poses an unacceptable risk to others based on the criminal behavior of some other people. Therefore, the legislature aims to curtail or end ownership of an AR15 by Bob. How is this not, in effect, a charge of criminal intent by Bob? Why would Bob not have the right to face his accuser and to trial by jury?
The lack of precedent, a priori, is not enough to simply dismiss the entire question. I am not asserting that Bob has a right to face his accuser and right to a trial, rather I am interested in discussing pro/con the idea that stripping a person of their right and their property, or imposing new restrictions on their individual right, based on the utilitarian view that doing so will diminish deaths, can be justified without accusing the individual subject to restriction of criminal intent.
Discuss.
The Heller decision asserted that the right to keep and bear arms is an individual right, not collective. Each and every person meeting the criteria set forth in a form 4473 has an individual right to keep and bear arms. They lose that right upon conviction of various offenses (let's leave the 'suspension ' of that right under 'Red Flag' laws aside, if we can).
If I, as an individual, possess a right today and, at some time in the near future, a legislative body intends to strip me of my right, or restrict my individual right, on utilitarian grounds, there is usually some concept under the law that the alleged good has to merit the restriction envisaged. Greater legal minds than mine, perhaps those who remember their Bentham better than I do, will hopefully expand.
I have an individual right to keep and bear firearms. Let us say that in my jurisdiction, I have had no other restrictions beyond those in the NFA and GCA. In this jurisdiction, I own several semi-automatic rifles with vast capacity magazines.
The legislature of this jurisdiction takes the view that such firearms are a danger to the public because criminals have used such firearms to commit crimes. Therefore, they draft legislation that will strip me of my right or severely limit my right to keep and bear such firearms as I own.
The question for discussion, rather than immediate dismissal, is whether, regardless of the Second Amendment's prohibition on legislation that would infringe on my individual right to keep and bear arms, a legislature can strip an individual of his or her rights , or restrict them, for utilitarian purposes (the diminution of gun homicide) without demonstrating the utilitarian benefits on a case by case basis?
The legislature is, in effect, saying that the prior individual right to own and bear an AR15, for example, may be legitimately restricted because of the threat that the individual poses to others by owning said firearm. The legislature is, in effect, posing that each individual possessing such a firearm represents a risk to others. Since it is an individual right that is being restricted on the basis of an assessment of threat to others, and since that threat can only be realized through the commission of a crime (the discharge of a firearm at others in a non-justifiable manner), does the legislation not constitute an accusation of criminal intent on the part of every individual impacted by the legislation? How is the restriction of a right, the utility of which can only be realized through the stopping of a criminal act, be possible without accusing those being restricted of criminal intent? And if it is an accusation of criminal intent, should not each person thus accused have the right to trial by jury and the right to face their accuser in court?
Bob owns an AR15. The legislature believes that Bob's ownership of the AR15 poses an unacceptable risk to others based on the criminal behavior of some other people. Therefore, the legislature aims to curtail or end ownership of an AR15 by Bob. How is this not, in effect, a charge of criminal intent by Bob? Why would Bob not have the right to face his accuser and to trial by jury?
The lack of precedent, a priori, is not enough to simply dismiss the entire question. I am not asserting that Bob has a right to face his accuser and right to a trial, rather I am interested in discussing pro/con the idea that stripping a person of their right and their property, or imposing new restrictions on their individual right, based on the utilitarian view that doing so will diminish deaths, can be justified without accusing the individual subject to restriction of criminal intent.
Discuss.