I was reading a thread the yesterday, which I can no longer find, that was talking about how the NFA was enacted because elected officials did not feel that they had the power to ban things, only to tax them. So they tried to tax them out of existance. Well, obviously the reasoning changed somewhere along the way. Why? What is the supposed basis given for the constitutionality of any kind of a federal ban?
Using "assault weapons" as an example, how could they ban an "assault weapon" that is not part of interstate commerce? If a company made "assault weapons" only for in state purchase, would that be subject to a ban? How could any ATF regulation apply to any kind of firearm not involved in interstate commerce for that matter?
Using drugs as an example, how could the federal government stop states like California from legalizing certain drugs? I haven't paid that much attention to that whole battle, so I am short on facts, but it seems to me that the federal government cannot do anything about drugs made and consumed in a state, so long as it doesn't conflict with state law.
I do not wish to discuss the merits or demerits of any of the above bans, just the rationale used to create them.
Using "assault weapons" as an example, how could they ban an "assault weapon" that is not part of interstate commerce? If a company made "assault weapons" only for in state purchase, would that be subject to a ban? How could any ATF regulation apply to any kind of firearm not involved in interstate commerce for that matter?
Using drugs as an example, how could the federal government stop states like California from legalizing certain drugs? I haven't paid that much attention to that whole battle, so I am short on facts, but it seems to me that the federal government cannot do anything about drugs made and consumed in a state, so long as it doesn't conflict with state law.
I do not wish to discuss the merits or demerits of any of the above bans, just the rationale used to create them.
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