MeekandMild:
Furthermore, let's assume for the moment that "Godless communism" did cause more absolute number of deaths than religious conflicts (which might not be the case). Even if that were the case, you cannot make the statement that the "secular evil" was a greater than the "religious evil." Why? Because much of the religious violence took place in the pre-modern times whereas the secular violence took during the modern times. Meaning, the population bases were very different (MUCH larger in the modern times). So there were "more to kill" in the modern era. Furthermore, the methods of destruction increased tremendously in the modern times. Hitler could kill 6 million deliberately in only a handful of years. It took Jenghiz Khan decades of campaigning to kill an estimated 2 million.
So, sheer numbers of death alone do not demonstrate that one force was "more evil" than the other.
First of all, Nazism was most certainly not "a secular movement." It certainly incorporated many elements that can be described as religous, spiritual or cultish.lendringser, Even without Hitler (though Nazism was a secular movement) I think that if you crunch the numbers and count the Red Chinese, Soviet, Khymer Rouge victims they easily exceed all the theistic victims in modern history.
Furthermore, let's assume for the moment that "Godless communism" did cause more absolute number of deaths than religious conflicts (which might not be the case). Even if that were the case, you cannot make the statement that the "secular evil" was a greater than the "religious evil." Why? Because much of the religious violence took place in the pre-modern times whereas the secular violence took during the modern times. Meaning, the population bases were very different (MUCH larger in the modern times). So there were "more to kill" in the modern era. Furthermore, the methods of destruction increased tremendously in the modern times. Hitler could kill 6 million deliberately in only a handful of years. It took Jenghiz Khan decades of campaigning to kill an estimated 2 million.
So, sheer numbers of death alone do not demonstrate that one force was "more evil" than the other.
I would like the answer to this too. I consider it to be patently false.I'm still interested in hearing about your theory that the medieval Christians "relearned genocidal warfar" from medieval Islam -- in other words, that the atrocities committed by Christians were the fault of Islam.