Your intent does NOT negate your right to use lethal force in a situation where it is legally viable to use lethal force. If you think it does, actually prove me wrong.
You're missing the point.
Scenario: Bad Guy breaks into your house. You hear the sound of the door splintering and grab your bedside gun. He comes up the steps to your bedroom door. He screams "I will KILL you!" and walks forward, with a butcher's knife in his hands.
Oh my! *BOOM* *BOOM* *BOOM*
Well, this is obviously a clearcut scenario of self defense, and will fly in almost every quarter of the free world, except England (sorry, Agricola). Shot to stop, shot to kill- really kinda moot because, regardless of intent, you're probably shooting COM, or doing a failure drill like a mozambique...and the whole time the BG is on his feet, has a knife, and is closing.
Now, lets take it a step further. BG drops to the ground, obviously wounded by your rapid and accurate gunfire. The knife clatters from his hands. He lays there, making a mess of your area rug and is obviously not a threat (stay
with the scenario on this one, and it said "obviously not a threat").
Decision time: Does he get the rest of the magazine/tube/cylinder, or not? A shooter that is shooting to stop says "no, he is no longer a viable threat." A shooter that is shooting to kill walks up and shoots him a few more times.
Now, let's not cloud the issue with "dead men tell no tales" and similar stuff- we're dealing with the plain fact patterns here, not ways to get yourself out of a legal jam. Assuming that when the
gendarmes show up both of our hypothetical shooters are honest, one of them is probably going to be in trouble, and one of them probably is not. One of them shot to kill, and one of them shot to stop.
"Ah ha!" says someone. "The original quote said 'Your intent does NOT negate your right to use lethal force in a situation where it is legally viable to use lethal force.' In this scenario the one guy no longer had the right to use lethal force, ergo this argument is a lot of hot air."
Not quite: the fact that the shooter no longer had the right to use lethal force is the
crux of the argument. It proves that the intent of the whole endevour was to stop the threat: so long as the threat was valid, the use of force, up to and including lethal force, was valid. The instant the threat was stopped (note that word), the right to use force, lethal or otherwise, no longer existed.
And, as Buzz_Knox pointed out, we are, regardless of profession, just a bunch of guys (cops, lawyers, whatever) posting on the internet in our free time. If you have questions or concerns about this, you need to consult a local attorney. Not only does that invoke an attorney/client relationship, but he also knows the statutory and case law in your jurisdiction, which are the rules under which you will play the game.
Mike