jimpeel
Member
With the passage and signing of the PBA law, how is it that judges have now taken it upon themselves to issue restraining orders on laws that have not yet been challenged through the litigation process?
This is not a local ordinance that is being challenged, it is a federal law that has yet to take effect or be challenged in a court of law?
At what point did judges take this power unto themselves by fiat?
This is not a local ordinance that is being challenged, it is a federal law that has yet to take effect or be challenged in a court of law?
At what point did judges take this power unto themselves by fiat?