I've always wondered about this. At what point in our nation's history did the taxing of private land start? Seems to me that it is very much contrary to the spirit of the Founders. Seems to go contrary to the right of property as a bulwark against tyranny, which was a big issue for the Founders. Have we always had to pay yearly taxes to our local governments based on the land we own? I could understand charging a tax at the point of sale, similar to a sales tax, but once purchased, how does the government claim any right to yearly payments based on the land's theoretical value whether or not you are profiting from that theoretical value? That makes it seem like you are renting the land from the government, rather than it being privately owned. Again, I can understand if you are making a profit from your land being taxed on the profit, but I am talking about just owning a hundred acres or so (or a thousand, or ten) somewhere, and keeping it for private use, i.e., not mining or manufacturing or anything like that on it. Anyone know the history? How was it justified, other than the obvious, i.e., that it supported government benefits such as police and fire departments, etc. Those would justify taxing income, but not a yearly rent payment to keep government from taking your land. My thought is that it must have started when non-landowners were given the vote. The first thing they voted for was probably charging land owners to keep their land. Just a speculation, though. I just never learned the history of it.