cropcirclewalker
member
Article 1
Section 8
Clause 3: To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the several States, and with the Indian Tribes;
OK, OK.
I see where congress has the power to do the above. Where does it say that congress can regulate commerce between the people?
How come the commerce clause is not a COLLECTIVE power belonging to congress?
Like, that is to say, can congress arrest and charge a foreign person in a foreign contry for having an unregistered machine gun? I mean like in Iraq? Or can they just tell Indiana (or another state or indian tribe) not to do business with Iraq?
I think what we have here is that the fascist FDR followed in ole' Honest Abe's footsteps and usurped a bunch of power that should belong to the states.
Sure, congress can regulate (In the same sense as regulate in 2a) commerce between the states but it doesn't say that they can regulate between the people.
Iraqii with AK47 example as shown above.
FDR led a bunch of dim witted congress persons into the wrong definition of the word "Regulate".
edited to propose that the correct wordage for the commerce clause as the fascist FDR would have us believe
Clause 3: To regulate Commerce with foreign Nations, and among the people of the several States, and with the Indian Tribes;
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