The Real Hawkeye
member
A republic, madam, if you can keep it.Does anyone remember Franklin's response when he was asked what kind of government they had created?
A republic, madam, if you can keep it.Does anyone remember Franklin's response when he was asked what kind of government they had created?
Actually, I transposed a couple of numbers and was thinking of 1867 ... and I was thinking of laws coming from the Legislative rather than the Judicial ... so I was thinking of our 1867 Congress and despotism.Gee hugh, you don't think it might be a little overbroad to say that any Supreme Court decision handed down in 1876 was intended to undo the U.S. Constitution?
I am not sure exactly what you mean, what it is I said that you think is "righteous tones" ... but I am not the type of person who forms a view of the US Constitution by taking a poll. The thing is, massive swaths of the population do not desire, nor even believe in, the form of government which the US Constitution frames: limited federal government. I do not believe it is only my personal interpretation that the US Constitution is a compact between the States which delegates limited powers.I guess that depends on whether you want to advance your goal or just talk about it in righteous tones while failing to move it forward an inch. If massive swaths of the population don't agree with your interpretation of the Constitution, then I would say that starting off with an interpretation that even those who are regarded as your closest allies don't agree with is probably going to present a problem.
I think we first have to get to the issue of what the Constitution is. I see it as a compact between the States, and I believe that free government is consentual ... so I think the US can interpret the US Constitution so long as Virginia is free to secede when the US interprets our compact to be something other than what we understood it to be. Otherwise, if the US Government can interpret/reconstruct the US Constitution against the will of the people and the States, and there is no right to secession ... aren't we back to some kind of monarchy?Which all goes to the real issue here - who gets to interpret the Constitution?
Got me there. But of course the House was the exception, the democratic branch. Today democracy has run rampant and we vote directly for our US Congressman, our US Senators, and our US President ... of course we still have some form of Electoral College, but many people just assume that a popular vote would be the proper method (because they think the US is a State and the President is the Governor of the State of America)[You were not to vote for US President or US Senator] but you were to vote for your US House Representative, who had the power to tax you.
I believe that Franklin said we have a Republic. And I believe that Madison said that the States were simple republics while the US was a compound republic which embraces the separation of State and federal powers.Does anyone remember Franklin's response when he was asked what kind of government they had create.
TRH said:The Great Depression was not a result of a lack of central planning. It was an intentionally manipulated outcome made possible only by the existence of the Federal Reserve Bank (i.e., central planning), and its power to manipulate interest rates.
hugh damnright said:I am not sure exactly what you mean, what it is I said that you think is "righteous tones" ... but I am not the type of person who forms a view of the US Constitution by taking a poll.
hugh damnright said:I think we first have to get to the issue of what the Constitution is.
I see it as a compact between the States, and I believe that free government is consentual ... so I think the US can interpret the US Constitution so long as Virginia is free to secede when the US interprets our compact to be something other than what we understood it to be.
Are you telling me that the way the US Constitution works is that it is subordinate to the majority, because that seems backwards to me.If you are going to tell people that the Constitution means this interpretation that we stopped using 141 years ago, you will need a compelling argument that wins the majority. You may not think it should work that way; but that is the way it does work.
We agree about that, Hawkeye, but I see the power of eminent domain as necessary and proper to building a post road. It was mentioned earlier that the power to acquire land on behalf of the public must include the power of eminent domain.TRH said:But the power to coin money certainly would imply the power to hire mint workers, and to purchase coining machinery, and a building in which to house the operation.
That suggests a State to me.TRH/Franklin said:A republic, madam, if you can keep it.
It seems to me I "got" you on a pretty important point. We agree that it has somewhat run amock in modern times, but getting back to the intended structure for a moment, a government for which you vote for half of the main legislative body directly, and which can tax you directly, and which can declare war on your behalf, is a bit more than an association by treaty such as the UN. It's a Republic, a State, sovereign within its sphere. Speaking of which...hugh said:Got me there. But of course the House was the exception, the democratic branch. Today democracy has run rampant
If a number of political societies enter into a larger political society, the laws which the latter may enact, pursuant to the powers intrusted to it by its constitution, must necessarily be supreme over those societies, and the individuals of whom they are composed. It would otherwise be a mere treaty, dependent on the good faith of the parties, and not a goverment, which is only another word for POLITICAL POWER AND SUPREMACY. But it will not follow from this doctrine that acts of the large society which are NOT PURSUANT to its constitutional powers, but which are invasions of the residuary authorities of the smaller societies, will become the supreme law of the land. These will be merely acts of usurpation, and will deserve to be treated as such.
I am not entirely out of touch with reality. 98% of people wouldn't have the slightest idea what you, I or Hugh are talk about. Of the remainder who would, 98% would probably lack sufficient background knowledge to fully follow what we are saying, let alone agree with Hugh and I. Then there is a tiny fraction of a percentage that fully follows but which is made up of those who are dispositionally on the other side of this issue, i.e., they prefer living under a super state central government based in DC, and fear giving the people control of their local laws and government. So, no, I am under no illusion that I am going to convert the world to my way of thinking.If you can't convince me on this one, you're going to have real trouble branching out to people who are more inclined to disagree with you.
The way I understand it, the US is, at its foundation, a compact between the States ... and then upon this federal foundation resides a superstructure which is part federal and part national. I do not believe the US is a Confederacy nor a State, but more like a hybrid between the two. However, at its foundation, it is a compact between the States. That is what I understand "federal" to mean ... I often refer to Webster's 1828 dictionary for various reasons (one being that Webster was a federalist and so I am not seeking something biased my way) ... here is Webster's definition of "federal" and "compact":It seems to me I "got" you on a pretty important point. We agree that it has somewhat run amock in modern times, but getting back to the intended structure for a moment, a government for which you vote for half of the main legislative body directly, and which can tax you directly, and which can declare war on your behalf, is a bit more than an association by treaty such as the UN. It's a Republic, a State, sovereign within its sphere.
Just what is it that I am supposed to be convincing you of .. that the US Constitution frames a limited federal government, which is different from a State government?If you can't convince me on this one, you're going to have real trouble branching out to people who are moreinclined to disagree with you. (But keep trying, I'm having fun)
I was under the impression that we had a consensus that the US has a power to take private property if it is necessary for them to do so in order to perform their delegated duties, but that they do not have a broad/general power to confiscate private property for the common good. In other words, the US is not delegated the general power of eminent domain, but they do have a limited implied power of eminent domain as an aspect of their delegated powers.The whole State argument is a side issue raised by the general question of the power of eminent domain. I just don't see that one as stepping outside the boundaries drawn in the Constitution, because it is necessary to some delegated powers.
Thank you hugh!hugh said:but they do have a limited implied power of eminent domain as an aspect of their delegated powers.
Bart, that's a definition I can accept (re: our ealier disagreement over implied powers). The delegated powers are few. Implied powers are limited to what is necessary for the implimentation the delegated power.
Both the more moderate Federalists and the Anti-Federalists were more than happy to pass and execute new laws based on the implied powers doctrine when they got their turn at the wheel (i.e. the debate over the national bank)
When I see people who did passionately believe in only express powers being granted by the Constitution accept the implied powers doctrine in circumstances like the national bank,
In other words, the US is not delegated the general power of eminent domain, but they do have a limited implied power of eminent domain as an aspect of their delegated powers.
In a free State, the people form a sovereign body, whereas in the US the people form fifty sovereign bodies ... the people of the US do not do anything directly, they do not have a popular vote ever, not for a representative, not as a national referendum, not to amend the US Constitution, not to declare war.
Amendment XIV
Section 1. All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the state wherein they reside. No state shall make or enforce any law which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of the United States; nor shall any state deprive any person of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor deny to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.
That's my view, but it's not consistent with post 1 of this thread.Hugh said:I was under the impression that we had a consensus that the US has a power to take private property if it is necessary for them to do so in order to perform their delegated duties, but that they do not have a broad/general power to confiscate private property for the common good. In other words, the US is not delegated the general power of eminent domain, but they do have a limited implied power of eminent domain as an aspect of their delegated powers.
TRH said:According to the Tenth Amendment, therefore, there is no Federal level eminent domain authorized by the US Constitution
Although eminent domain is not a power delegated to the Federal Government, a limited-usage equivalent is, i.e., to "make laws necessary and proper for carrying into execution the foregoing powers." This delegated power, combined with the Supremacy Clause, gives the Federal Government the ability, by the passage and enforcement of a law, to acquire land which is necessary and proper for the execution of "the foregoing [enumerated] powers." It is not accomplished by way of some implied Federal power of eminent domain, but rather by way of both the Supremacy and the Necessary and Proper Clauses which, taken in tandem, authorize the Federal Government to, in this narrow respect, enforce its will on the States, not individual land owners, to provide the land it requires to execute its other delegated powers, i.e., "the foregoing [enumerated] powers."Originally Posted by Hugh
I was under the impression that we had a consensus that the US has a power to take private property if it is necessary for them to do so in order to perform their delegated duties, but that they do not have a broad/general power to confiscate private property for the common good. In other words, the US is not delegated the general power of eminent domain, but they do have a limited implied power of eminent domain as an aspect of their delegated powers.
That's my view, but it's not consistent with post 1 of this thread.
Originally Posted by TRH
According to the Tenth Amendment, therefore, there is no Federal level eminent domain authorized by the US Constitution.
Really? The UN is set up in the form of a republic. Is that a State too?Publius said: That suggests a State to me.
TRH said:It is not accomplished by way of some implied Federal power of eminent domain, but rather by way of both the Supremacy and the Necessary and Proper Clauses which, taken in tandem, authorize the Federal Government to, in this narrow respect, enforce its will on the States, not individual land owners
Because, in the circumstance under discussion, that would amount to an exercise of eminent domain by the Federal Government, which is a power never delegated to it, although it is empowered to require, by the passage of a law, that States, which do possess said sovereign power, exercise same in accordance with the requirements of the Supremacy Clause of the US Constitution, when such is necessary and proper for the carrying into execution an enumerated power of the Federal Government.Why do you feel there is no authorization in the Constitution for the federal government to directly affect individuals in this circumstance?
I never said that.Aside from the fact that we are now arguing "How things should be done" instead of "How things are done", what in the Constitution makes you think that individuals cannot be directly affected if the Feds are justifiably acting under the necessary and proper clause?
antarti said:Can you give me some examples that stick out, or should I just look up the votes? 1790-1804 is a period I spent considerable time studying in graduate school, so I have the necessary materials, and I'd like to revisit this from the historical perspective. I can answer for Jefferson/Burr off the top of my head, but probably not for everybody you have in mind without a little digging.
Good point. That would be an exercise of police powers, which is probably why the circumscribed power of eminent domain was reserved exclusively to the States.If the US needs my property to properly exercise its duties, and I do not agree to leave my property, then do federal agents come and run me off at gunpoint, or does that come under the police powers reserved to the States?
Not if they provide the funds.I don't know what's proper ... it seems like removing me from my property is a police function and police powers are reserved to the States ... but if the feds had to get the States to acquire federal properties, might that be placing an unfunded mandate upon the States?