I don't know where "ignorance of the law is no excuse" came from, but that's a literally irrational statement. You cannot be beholden to laws you know nothing about... not morally anyway. Its tyrannical.
Bullseye. It's a very irrational statement. I didn't say I agreed with it or think it's right or lawful, but it's the defacto rules that they go by.
"All persons are
presumed to know the law. If any person
acts under any unConstitutional statute, he does so at his own peril. He must take the consequences."
16 Am Jur 177, 178
UCC 1-201 (13) states: presumption or presumed means that
the party against whom the presumption is directed has the burden of proving that the
nonexistance of the presumed fact is more provable than it's existance." The best way to prove such nonexistance is to revert the burden of proof to the Government to prove the facts by challenging jurisdiction.
"We have in our political system (two governments) a government of the United States and a government of the several (50) states.
Each is distinct from the other and each has citizens of its own..."
U.S. v Cruikshank, 92 U.S., 542, 23 L., Ed 588
In 1945 the supreme court in
Hooven and Allison Co. v Evatt, 324 U.S., 652 affirmed that there are TWO distinctly different United States with
two opposite forms of governments. Both United States have the same Congress. This supreme court case officially defined the two distinct and seperate meanings of the term "United States." The Hooven decision is the basis for the definition of "United States" found in the sixth edition of Blacks Law Dictionary;
The term "United States" may be used in any one of several senses:
1) It may be merely the name of a sovereign occupying the position analogous to that of other sovereigns in the family of nations.
2) It may designate the territory over which the sovereignity of the United States extends. (Const. Art. I sec 8 Cl. 17 & Art. IV sec 3 Cl 2)
3)It may be the collective names of the states which are united by and under the Constitution." (The 50 states)
The 2nd, very different "United States" definition refered to in the Hooven decision does not include the 50 states but is a "term" for a "territorial" United States. In the constitution, the federal government was given the power to set up a "seat of government" over which it excercised
"exclusive jurisdiction in all cases whatsoever." This exclusive territory was created and limited by Art. I, sec 8, Cl. 17 and Art. IV, sec 3, Cl. 2 of our constitution. Read those two sections and notice where the exclusive jurisdiction of this United States ends.
The jurisdictional area of this United States is limited to only the District of Columbia (not exceeding ten square miles), and the possessions and territories
belonging to and
under the exclusive sovereignity of the United States. (D.C., Puerto Rico, U.S. Virgin Islands, Guam, Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands). This United States does not include the 50 states, except for lands ceded to the United States for purposes such as setting up military bases, federal buildings, etc. The 50 sovereign states DO NOT
belong to the United States. They belong to the sovereign PEOPLE. In the territorial states (not the 50 states), the United States is sovereign and excercises exclusive and absolute legislative authority. This "other" United States is a corporate entity with the deceptive "trade names" of "The United States of America", and the "U.S." When they write legislation, and apply it to "persons", "citizens", etc., they throw in the definitive but misleading "subject to the jurisdiction" or "subject to the jurisdiction thereof" in the text which is supposed to differentiate it from lawful authorized legislation for the 50 states of which there is next to no power authorized. Joe American is good and wants to be law abiding so thinks the law applies to him and obeys without challenging jurisdiction, thereby aquiescing (?) to the law and making himself lawfully subject to it by not rebutting the presumption of law that it applies to him and that they have jurisdiction in the first place.
Clear as mud?