The activity that the Lopez Court found was not "economic"
or "connected with a commercial transaction" was a type of
intrastate firearm possession, i.e., the possession of a firearm
(including a machine gun) within a school zone. At issue here is
another type of purely intrastate firearm possession, i.e., the
purely intrastate possession of a machine gun. If the former
must be regarded as non-economic and non-commercial, why isn't
the same true of the latter? Is possession of a machine gun
inherently more "economic" or more "commercial" than possession
of other firearms? [Footnote 4] Is the possession of a firearm
within a school zone somehow less "economic" and "commercial"
than possession elsewhere--say, on one's own property? [Footnote
5] If there are distinctions of constitutional dimension here,
they are too subtle for me to grasp. It seems to me that the
most natural reading of Lopez is that the simple possession of a
firearm, without more, is not "economic" or "commercial" activity
in the same sense as the production of wheat in Wickard and that
therefore such possession cannot be regulated under the Wickard
theory.