ATF Director Resigns

[DMF]

DMF, your reasoning seems circular to me. "There is a federal law, therefore it is a federal issue. Because it is a federal issue, we can pass more federal laws making more things federal issues."

What you put in quotes is NOT my claim at all, and my logic is not circular in the least.

My logic is as follows:

Congress is given specific authority in the Constitution to address specific federal interests (aka issues) via legislation. There must first be a federal interest for Congress to properly address that interest with legislation. If they legislate in areas where there is no established federal interest then the law is able to be successfully challenged in the courts.

If they address a federal through legislation, the executive has a chance to veto or sign it into law. Further the laws may also be challenged in the courts. Finally, if there are laws there must be a mechanism to enforce those laws, which is why federal law enforcement agencies were created along with the very first laws, at the very first Congress.

 

[DMF]

. . . it was also unresponsive to my question . . .

It is not unresponsive in the least. It is just not the response YOU wanted. I answered your question very clearly. If you are unable to understand my response that is your problem, not mine.

 

[publius]

You explained the legislative process, without offering any opinion on the new language in 922(q) and whether or not it turns that law from an unconstitutional one into a constitutional one. You offered instances of Congress doing that, and I can infer from those that you are of the opinion that the new language does turn the law into a proper exercise of the commerce power, but I wouldn't say it is really "clear" that you hold that opinion.

Before I proceed on my inference, is it correct?

 

[publius]

I guess this could be the answer, but again it's not exactly clear:

where Congress has exceeded it's authority under the Constitution the courts corrected those problems.

I can infer that you believe Congress has NOT exceeded its authority with the passage of 922(q), since the Court has not corrected them. Would that be correct?