A court recently decided that if you plan to use a gun for any other reason than sporting purposes you shouldn't be allowed to have it.
http://www.kscourts.org/ca10/cases/2006/05/05-8058.htm
Essentially the guy in the case was guilty of owning a firearm after a misdemeanor domestic violence charge.
He appealed saying he got the gun only to hunt with (sporting purposes).
Later on he threatened people with his gun either intending to use it or just to bluff with, so there by the gun was for a new purpose not just sporting purposes only and so he was not allowed to have the gun.
What I am wondering is if it is possible now for someone to say that any gun not specifically owned for hunting is not suitable to sporting purposes and should be banned?
What if the new purpose was self defense? or collecting them for their value?
I fail to see how purpose of owning rifles should have any ability on your right to own them.
http://www.kscourts.org/ca10/cases/2006/05/05-8058.htm
Essentially the guy in the case was guilty of owning a firearm after a misdemeanor domestic violence charge.
He appealed saying he got the gun only to hunt with (sporting purposes).
Later on he threatened people with his gun either intending to use it or just to bluff with, so there by the gun was for a new purpose not just sporting purposes only and so he was not allowed to have the gun.
What I am wondering is if it is possible now for someone to say that any gun not specifically owned for hunting is not suitable to sporting purposes and should be banned?
What if the new purpose was self defense? or collecting them for their value?
I fail to see how purpose of owning rifles should have any ability on your right to own them.