ilcylic
Member
I'm having a discussion with a friend in which I'm trying to dispel the notion that "women will just have their firearms turned against them" by rapists and other attackers.
Instinctively, I feel that the person with their finger on the trigger has an almost undeniable upper hand, especially if they don't have to engage in any sort of "apprehension" behaviour, like the police do. Likewise, the fact that all I can get out of google for every way I can think to phrase it results in no news articles citing an actual case of such a thing happening, but rather only links to anti-gun propaganda, indicates to me that this is hyperbolic nonsense.
What I'm wondering is, does anyone have any citations for how frequently a firearm is taken away from a civilian wielder, and then used against that person, versus the total number of incidents in which a firearms is used in a confrontation between a criminal and a civilian? (I specify civilian, because, again, the police have a much higher contact rate with criminals, and typically being unsatisfied with simply driving them away, must get close enough that the prospect of having their firearms taken away becomes a seemingly much higher risk.)
Actually, now that I think about it, how frequently do the police have guns taken from them? Surely the percentages will be lower for civilians, since civilians don't have to apprehend criminals, but rather just drive them away.
If this is the wrong section of the board to post this in, I apologize.
Instinctively, I feel that the person with their finger on the trigger has an almost undeniable upper hand, especially if they don't have to engage in any sort of "apprehension" behaviour, like the police do. Likewise, the fact that all I can get out of google for every way I can think to phrase it results in no news articles citing an actual case of such a thing happening, but rather only links to anti-gun propaganda, indicates to me that this is hyperbolic nonsense.
What I'm wondering is, does anyone have any citations for how frequently a firearm is taken away from a civilian wielder, and then used against that person, versus the total number of incidents in which a firearms is used in a confrontation between a criminal and a civilian? (I specify civilian, because, again, the police have a much higher contact rate with criminals, and typically being unsatisfied with simply driving them away, must get close enough that the prospect of having their firearms taken away becomes a seemingly much higher risk.)
Actually, now that I think about it, how frequently do the police have guns taken from them? Surely the percentages will be lower for civilians, since civilians don't have to apprehend criminals, but rather just drive them away.
If this is the wrong section of the board to post this in, I apologize.