critter
Member
I have seen several threads attempting to compare inherant accuracy of various rounds such as 9mm-40 S&W-.45 ACP-.357 sig, etc. It is also done with rifle rounds and it is generally 'accepted' that short, fat rounds are better at IA than long skinny ones. That is, 308 is better than 30-06, the short fat ppc type rounds are 'good' and that the new ultra short rounds are 'very good' in this area.
It seems to me that 'inherant accuracy' refers to the 'top accuracy potential' of a ROUND. That is, it is NOT related to the specific gun, how it is fired, by whom, etc. Since no two guns can ever be exactly identical except for caliber and that actually no two shooters can be equally accurate, etc. , then I have a question.
How in the world can it be determined that caliber X is more inherantly accurate than caliber Y?
I know that many say the the .45 is better than the 40 or 9mm. Well, there has been nearly century of 'tweaking' on the .45 and guns to shoot it and aftermarket enhancement methods and accessories. The same is true for the 40 and the 9 BUT NOT NEARLY TO THAT GREAT extent. Is THAT why many people believe the 45 is more 'inherantly accurate' than the others (even though NONE of these things ACTUALLY have anything to do with the ACCURACY POTENTIAL of the round)?
Sorry to be so long winded. Just wondering. OR----maybe I'm totally off base altogether. If so, straighten me out!
Thanks.
It seems to me that 'inherant accuracy' refers to the 'top accuracy potential' of a ROUND. That is, it is NOT related to the specific gun, how it is fired, by whom, etc. Since no two guns can ever be exactly identical except for caliber and that actually no two shooters can be equally accurate, etc. , then I have a question.
How in the world can it be determined that caliber X is more inherantly accurate than caliber Y?
I know that many say the the .45 is better than the 40 or 9mm. Well, there has been nearly century of 'tweaking' on the .45 and guns to shoot it and aftermarket enhancement methods and accessories. The same is true for the 40 and the 9 BUT NOT NEARLY TO THAT GREAT extent. Is THAT why many people believe the 45 is more 'inherantly accurate' than the others (even though NONE of these things ACTUALLY have anything to do with the ACCURACY POTENTIAL of the round)?
Sorry to be so long winded. Just wondering. OR----maybe I'm totally off base altogether. If so, straighten me out!
Thanks.