You claimed it had to be at night, which is untrue.
For using deadly force to protect property against a thief, which is what I was referring to? Oh yes it is. Read Texas Code Section 9.42, DEADLY FORCE TO PROTECT PROPERTY.
A person is justified in using deadly force against another to protect land or tangible, movable property:
(1) if he would be justified in using force against the other under Section 9.41; and
(2) when and to the degree he reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary:
(A) to prevent the other's imminent commission of arson, burglary, robbery, aggravated robbery, theft during the nighttime, or criminal mischief during the nighttime; or
(B) to prevent the other who is fleeing immediately after committing burglary, robbery, aggravated robbery, or theft during the nighttime from escaping with the property; and
(3) he reasonably believes that:
(A) the land or property cannot be protected or recovered by any other means; or
(B) the use of force other than deadly force to protect or recover the land or property would expose the actor or another to a substantial risk of death or serious bodily injury.
So, if not at night, the question is whether section 9.32, DEADLY FORCE IN DEFENSE OF PERSON, applies.
(a) A person is justified in using deadly force against another:
(1) if the actor would be justified in using force against the other under Section 9.31; and
(2) when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary:
(A) to protect the actor against the other's use or attempted use of unlawful deadly force; or
(B) to prevent the other's imminent commission of aggravated kidnapping, murder, sexual assault, aggravated sexual assault, robbery, or aggravated robbery.
(b) The actor's belief under Subsection (a)(2) that the deadly force was immediately necessary as described by that subdivision is presumed to be reasonable if the actor:
(1) knew or had reason to believe that the person against whom the deadly force was used:
(A) unlawfully and with force entered, or was attempting to enter unlawfully and with force, the actor's occupied habitation, vehicle, or place of business or employment;
(B) unlawfully and with force removed, or was attempting to remove unlawfully and with force, the actor from the actor's habitation, vehicle, or place of business or employment; or
(C) was committing or attempting to commit an offense described by Subsection (a)(2)(B);
(2) did not provoke the person against whom the force was used; and
(3) was not otherwise engaged in criminal activity, other than a Class C misdemeanor that is a violation of a law or ordinance regulating traffic at the time the force was used.
(c) A person who has a right to be present at the location where the deadly force is used, who has not provoked the person against whom the deadly force is used, and who is not engaged in criminal activity at the time the deadly force is used is not required to retreat before using deadly force as described by this section.
(d) For purposes of Subsection (a)(2), in determining whether an actor described by Subsection (c) reasonably believed that the use of deadly force was necessary, a finder of fact may not consider whether the actor failed to retreat.
Under Texas law, unlawfully entering a premise means being without the effective consent of the owner.
True where I live, also. But in Texas, the law on deadly force reads that the intruder must have entered "unlawfully
and with force" for the fact of the unlawful entry per se to establish a presumption that the resident had reasonable belief that the deadly force was immediately necessary for the purpose of self defense.
As I read it, forcible entry is not necessary to justify deadly force, just to establish a presumption of reasonable belief, absent other exculpatory evidence.
For all you know they are there to rape you and stealing was an act of opportunity.
Yeah, but the law does not say anything about speculation--it speaks of
reasonable belief.
Dont get me wrong--as a juror, I would most likely, and given a forcible entry,
surely assume that if a stranger had entered his occupied home unlawfully, a resident did in fact have reasonable belief that deadly force had been immediately necessary,
absent contradictory evidence.
But since the OP spoke of a person "heading out the door (but still within the confines of the house)", forensic or other evidence may well
be contradictory, and "if he was only stealing", he was not committing any of the felonies listed in Section 9.32 (aggravated kidnapping, murder, sexual assault, aggravated sexual assault, robbery, or aggravated robbery) as subject to deadly force, the use of deadly force would most likely not be justified, as I read it...
....
unless it happens at night, in which circumstance Section 9.42 comes into play.
And, of course, unless it it in Texas, or possibly Georgia.
Upon reflection, it is probably very true indeed that "as long as the intruder is in your home, the intruder can be considered a threat - day or night," but I would want to rely on that alone as justification for the use of deadly force, particularly if he is on his way out.