Poodleshooter
Member
Party A and party B are related and live in the same household co-currently in State X. Party B owns a handgun purchased in state X, their current shared homestate. Party B is moving to State Y which requires handgun registration and does not allow citizens to transfer handguns in state without an extensive waiting period. To complicate matters, party A is moving to State Z. In order to comply with state Y's registration law, party A takes possession of party B's handguns and moves to state Z.
Now are the following legal, and/or would they cause concern to an FFL?
1. Party A sells party B's handgun then transfers the proceeds to party B, avoiding the need to deal with state Y's bureacratic hassle.
2. Party A in state Z transfers party B's handgun to them in their new state Y residence subsequent to their receiving permission to receive their handgun. The transfer would actually occur between an FFL in states Z and Y.
3. Party A in state Z sells trades party B's handgun in on a new model which party B has requested, then transfers the handgun via FFL to Party B's FFL in state Y
Chief concern is thus: Does the nebulous nature of the private transfer presumed to occur in state X create any difficulty in determining ownership or legally making the sale or transfer in state Z?
Is the entire concern a moot point, providing that party A certifies that the handgun is their own property for reason of convenience in making the sales or transfers? Is there any reason that this assertion could or would be challenged?
Everyone confused?
thanks all!
Now are the following legal, and/or would they cause concern to an FFL?
1. Party A sells party B's handgun then transfers the proceeds to party B, avoiding the need to deal with state Y's bureacratic hassle.
2. Party A in state Z transfers party B's handgun to them in their new state Y residence subsequent to their receiving permission to receive their handgun. The transfer would actually occur between an FFL in states Z and Y.
3. Party A in state Z sells trades party B's handgun in on a new model which party B has requested, then transfers the handgun via FFL to Party B's FFL in state Y
Chief concern is thus: Does the nebulous nature of the private transfer presumed to occur in state X create any difficulty in determining ownership or legally making the sale or transfer in state Z?
Is the entire concern a moot point, providing that party A certifies that the handgun is their own property for reason of convenience in making the sales or transfers? Is there any reason that this assertion could or would be challenged?
Everyone confused?
thanks all!