I'm not a professional statistician, but I have a real problem swallowing the results. Their own data provides the following:
Gun Victims Being in Possession of Guns – 5.92%
Control Group Being in Possession of Guns – 7.16%
From their own data, 7.16% of the Control Group had a gun, yet only 5.92% of the victims had a gun. Accordingly, it follows that a higher percentage of the Control Group, who was not shot, was carrying guns than the percentage of gun victims.
Yet, here is their conclusion: "After we adjusted for confounding factors, individuals who were in possession of a gun were 4.46 times more likely to be shot in an assault than those not in possession."
"Adjusted for Confounding Factors." I have to admit to being confounded. :banghead:
Looking at the real data, some real differences were as follows:
High Risk Occupation of Gun Victims – 24.34%
High Risk Occupation of Control Group – 11.40%
Gun Victims Being Outdoors – 83.13%
Control Group Being Outdoors – 9.05
Here's another rather relevant quote from the study: "However, compared with control participants, shooting case participants were significantly more often Hispanic, more frequently working in high-risk occupations, less educated, and had a greater frequency of prior arrest. At the time of shooting, case participants were also significantly more often involved with alcohol and drugs, outdoors, and closer to areas where more Blacks, Hispanics, and unemployed individuals resided. Case participants were also more likely to be located in areas with less income and more illicit drug trafficking."
Funny how this wasn't in the article.
Also this gem: "Our control participants were, however, significantly more unemployed than the general population."
I think they could have found you 4.5 times more likely to get shot if you had a frog in you pocket with application of the right "confounding factors."