Gungnir
Member
I ask this out of genuine curiosity; I've never before run into anyone who believes that the Constitution recognizes an individual right to procure any sort of weapon with absolutely no limitations. If I'm understanding your responses correctly, there are no circumstances under which a government should be able to limit an individual's ability to obtain any sort of weapon, even if it's something that could cause mass casualties. Is that correct, or do I misunderstand what some of you are urging?
You have now...
The 2nd amendment protects the right to keep and bear arms, not necessarily employ them. As Ohio Gun Guy posted
Congress have no power to disarm the militia. Their swords, and every other terrible implement of the soldier, are the birth-right of an American... [T]he unlimited power of the sword is not in the hands of either the federal or state governments, but, where I trust in God it will ever remain, in the hands of the people.
Pennsylvania Gazette, Feb. 20, 1788.p
Now MLJDeckard does raise a good point on the specific wording (arms vs. ordnance) I'm not so convinced on the separation however, ordnance factories produce both arms and ordnance we also know that at that time there was no restriction on owning cannon.
According to Websters
Ordnance
Function: noun
Etymology: Middle English ordinaunce, from Anglo-French ordenance disposition, preparation, military provisions — more at ordinance
Date: 14th century
1 a : military supplies including weapons, ammunition, combat vehicles, and maintenance tools and equipment b : a service of the army charged with the procuring, distributing, and safekeeping of ordnance
2 : cannon, artillery
However as I mentioned we do have intent and purpose from those that framed the 2nd amendment. Perhaps we should not be asking whether civilians should have these weapons of mass casualties, we should ask whether the framers would have intended to employ them in a permanent standing army.
It's an equally valid perspective. Considering that the framers never originally intended there to be a permanent standing army COTUS Article I section 8 "To raise and support armies, but no appropriation of money to that use shall be for a longer term than two years;" so by inference either after 2 years the armies would be unfunded, or disbanded. The civilian defenders would need to initially need to meet force on force with either a privately armed and funded unit, or foreign invaders while armies could be raised. It would make sense that the weaponry available to those defenders would match or exceed the invaders, or mercenaries this is also represented in COTUS Article 1 section 8 "To provide for calling forth the militia to execute the laws of the union, suppress insurrections and repel invasions;"
My $0.02 FWIW