I do agree somewhat with zoogster's original argument here. To add to his argument, I believe that anyone should not be denied the RKBA. We don't deprive violent felons of the right to free speech, nor the right to peacefully assemble, nor the right to be protected against unreasonable search and seizure, etc. What's the difference with RBKA? As far as I'm concerned, you either give a violent felon all (constitutional) rights back or you give none. I didn't know there was an exception in the second amendment which included the nullification of that right if one is a violent felon.
Don't restrict RKBA rights just because their are failures in the justice system. Fight for change within the justice system. What that change is, well, that's debatable - but that still doesn't change the point.
I will also add that restricting firearms for violent felons assumes that they would not be able to get illegal guns or other deadly weapons somewhere else. I don't think that's a fair assumption to make.
They instituted the Brady background check in 87, preventing violent felons from buying guns at a FFL, yet crime dropped in the early 90's. According to 'Freakonomics", there are other reasons for this drop, such as increased police presences, long-term effects of Roe vs. Wade, etc. Regardless of whether or not the authors argument is correct, there are too many additional variables related to crime rates to easily make some type of link. It's clear to me that their is no (easy) causation link between denial of guns to violent felons and changes, in any direction, in the crime rate.
What do you think?