Howland937
Member
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An immediate relative had been charged with OVI a couple of months ago. He had no firearms with him and doesn't have a CHL. The charge stems from a traffic infraction and the individual has had struggles with substance abuse. No prior OVI, possession, or firearm related charges.
Per his probation, he must abstain from alcohol and drugs and cannot use or be in possession of any firearms or ammunition for the entirety of the 2 years. He's also got to attend a 3 day class. This is a done deal, so I'm not looking for advice. I'm just curious as to whether this is typical for an OVI conviction, or if the fact that it wasn't a drunk driving charge has any bearing. Is it possible that he's considered a "user of illegal drugs" until his probation ends based on federal restriction?
Just curious how the court could/would arrive at the point of restricting his ability to possess a firearm on a non-violent, misdemeanor OVI charge when there were no firearms present.
An immediate relative had been charged with OVI a couple of months ago. He had no firearms with him and doesn't have a CHL. The charge stems from a traffic infraction and the individual has had struggles with substance abuse. No prior OVI, possession, or firearm related charges.
Per his probation, he must abstain from alcohol and drugs and cannot use or be in possession of any firearms or ammunition for the entirety of the 2 years. He's also got to attend a 3 day class. This is a done deal, so I'm not looking for advice. I'm just curious as to whether this is typical for an OVI conviction, or if the fact that it wasn't a drunk driving charge has any bearing. Is it possible that he's considered a "user of illegal drugs" until his probation ends based on federal restriction?
Just curious how the court could/would arrive at the point of restricting his ability to possess a firearm on a non-violent, misdemeanor OVI charge when there were no firearms present.
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