Owen Sparks
member
- Joined
- May 27, 2007
- Messages
- 4,523
A few things to ponder.
I heard an interesting proposition on the radio this morning. One of the main argument used to eliminate the poll tax in 1964,(the 24th amendment to the constitution) was that a constitutional right (voting) should not be subject to taxation.
Why does this principle not apply to the second amendment?
Also under the first amendment your right to legal council is held to be so sacrosanct that if you can not afford council, an attorney will be provided at public expense.
Why does this not apply to people who are too poor to afford a firearm?
What about that Federal form you have to read, check answer boxes and sign? Is that not the equivalent to a literacy test? You have to be able to read and write to complete the paperwork in order to purchase a firearm, right?
Shouldn't that be unconstitutional also?
I heard an interesting proposition on the radio this morning. One of the main argument used to eliminate the poll tax in 1964,(the 24th amendment to the constitution) was that a constitutional right (voting) should not be subject to taxation.
Why does this principle not apply to the second amendment?
Also under the first amendment your right to legal council is held to be so sacrosanct that if you can not afford council, an attorney will be provided at public expense.
Why does this not apply to people who are too poor to afford a firearm?
What about that Federal form you have to read, check answer boxes and sign? Is that not the equivalent to a literacy test? You have to be able to read and write to complete the paperwork in order to purchase a firearm, right?
Shouldn't that be unconstitutional also?