danez71
Member
Ah, no. The Bill of Rights applied only to the federal government, not to the States (Barron v. Baltimore, 32 U.S. (7 Pet.) 243 (1833)).
Not until the end of the 19th Century did the Court begin to apply the Bill of Rights to the States through the due process clause of the 14th Amendment.
But in a practical sense, didn't the 14th Amendment (about 30 yrs after) pretty much all but gut the life out of Barron v Baltimore (thrown in some other cases in there too such as Dred Scott vs Sandford and United States v. Cruikshank)?
And didn't (Barron v. Baltimore, 32 U.S. (7 Pet.) 243 (1833)) conflict with Fed Circuit Corfield v. Coryell some 10 years earlier in 1823?
That the BOR was only interpreted as being applied against the Fed govt, that seems to only be a relatively short period of time in our history. Barron v. Baltimore was, imo, little more than a snap shot in time and brushed aside by other cases and of clarification via the 14th A which took a much more comprehensive look at our history and the intention of the Constitutin/BOR.
The 14th Amendment (which quoted the Corfield v. Coryell case,,, which predates Barron v. Baltimore), particularly with the Equal Protection Clause and Privileges or/and* Immunities Clause, seems to me to be a reaction to reaffirm and clarify that the BOR did apply to all and that Barron v. Baltimore was a bad decision.
* Privileges or/and* Immunities Clause - The Privileges or Immunities Clause was inspired/modeled from the Privileges and Immunities Clause in Article IV of the Constitution and ties into the Articles of Confederation which predates the ratification of the Constitution.
IMO, and it also seems to be the opinion of Courts pre and post Barron v. Baltimore, the 14th Amendment tying into the Constitution and the Article of Confederation, and with the majority of our history, the concept 'BOR applying to all' seems to have been the original intention and that cases like Barron v Baltimore were not consistent with the original intention.
You're certainly more well versed in this than I am. But it seems fairly clear that was the original intention dating back to the Articles of Confederation.
Whether or not cases like Barron v. Baltimore wanted to follow that intention, or interpret it differently than what was intended, is a different matter; a matter that was corrected by the Courts and the 14th A.
Aside from that, It also seems pretty clear, dare I say 'not even disputed', that the States did want, at least to some degree, the Feds 'all up in their business' with things like international trade/commerce.
It seems some states rights absolutists seem to think that the states didn't want to Fed govt at all and forget the fact that they created it and gave it legitimacy and power over the individual states.
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