2A is archaic

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http://constitution.org/fed/federa29.htm

The project of disciplining all the militia of the United States is as futile as it would be injurious, if it were capable of being carried into execution. A tolerable expertness in military movements is a business that requires time and practice. It is not a day, or even a week, that will suffice for the attainment of it. To oblige the great body of the yeomanry, and of the other classes of the citizens, to be under arms for the purpose of going through military exercises and evolutions, as often as might be necessary to acquire the degree of perfection which would entitle them to the character of a well-regulated militia, would be a real grievance to the people, and a serious public inconvenience and loss.
...
Little more can reasonably be aimed at, with respect to the people at large, than to have them properly armed and equipped; and in order to see that this be not neglected, it will be necessary to assemble them once or twice in the course of a year.
 
I see few arguments pitched for pro-gun that shouldn't also be applied to nuclear weapons.
I think there is one overwhelming argument which is that an individual with a rifle is not a threat to free government, but an individual with a nuclear weapon would be a tremendous threat. One of the biggest threats to free government is that too much power will end up in the hands of too few people ... and an individual with a nuke seems to be such a threat. In contrast, with rifles, it would take many people, theoretically a majority, to use force to take over.
 
My understanding, and I could be wrong, is that one of the points of the 2A is not that I can have a nuke but that I can have the same exact rifle (whatever that may be) that the military does. So the miltary could be controled and outnumbered by the vast number of armed citizens (worst case situation).
 
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Lemon328i

Fortunately most soldiers would not obey orders to fire upon US Citizens, whether they be tank drivers or pilots.
This is most likely true, thank God!


Definitions in dictionaries and definitions as codified in law are often different beasts. Arms as defined by the 2nd amendment are typified from this paragraph in US v Miller (derived from Virginia common law):
Also that "Every officer and soldier shall appear at his respective muster-field on the day appointed, by eleven o'clock in the forenoon, armed, equipped, and accoutred, as follows: ... every non-commissioned officer and private with a good, clean musket carrying an ounce ball, and three feet eight inches long in the barrel, with a good bayonet and iron ramrod well fitted thereto, a cartridge box properly made, to contain and secure twenty cartridges fitted to his musket, a good knapsack and canteen, and moreover, each non-commissioned officer and Private shall have at every muster one pound of good (p.182)powder, and four pounds of lead, including twenty blind cartridges; and each serjeant shall have a pair of moulds fit to cast balls for their respective companies, to be purchased by the commanding officer out of the monies arising on delinquencies. Provided, That the militia of the counties westward of the Blue Ridge, and the counties below adjoining thereto, shall not be obliged to be armed with muskets, but may have good rifles with proper accoutrements, in lieu thereof. And every of the said officers, non-commissioned officers, and privates, shall constantly keep the aforesaid arms, accoutrements, and ammunition, ready to be produced whenever called for by his commanding officer. If any private shall make it appear to the satisfaction of the court hereafter to be appointed for trying delinquencies under this act that he is so poor that he cannot purchase the arms herein required, such court shall cause them to be purchased out of the money arising from delinquents."

This piece from US v. Miller was used to show the efficacy of armed civilians, and was not included in US v. Miller as a list or reference to define what weapons might be applicable to a militia. Just a little further on in US v. Miller, the Court said, "...when called for service these men were expected to appear bearing arms supplied by themselves and of the kind in common use at the time." There is a whole lot of stuff in common use today that we are either forbidden or made difficult for us to keep and bear - because the 2A is infringed.

Earlier in US v. Miller, the Court said, "In the absence of any evidence ..., we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear such an instrument." They couldn't say it didn't, either. Further, they said it wasn't within judicial notice that such a weapon might be a useful piece of military equipment, or that using one would contribute to the common defense. But, it doesn't matter anyway. The Court unconstitutionally amended the Constitution by saying that such a list might even exist or that any such test of usefulness to a militia might exist. There is no provision in the Second Amendment - or anywhere else in the Constitution - to grant power to Congress, the Executive, or Judiciary to make any such distinction(s).


Note that the muster order does not state bring your cannon, cannonballs, enough powder for cannons, or any other crew based weapons. These would be the equivalents to artillery, tanks and planes of today.
If this were relevant to the "interpretation" that there was some list of arms efficacious to a militia, this would have been the "judicial notice" the Court was looking for.


Arms is pretty clearly defined for US civilians as well, it is anything under 1/2 inch (.50Caliber). Anything larger is classed as a destructive device, not arms.
Funny, I can't find this in the Constitution anywhere, nor can I find power granted to Congress to conjure up any such definition. This would just be more unconstitutional infringement upon the right.


The founding fathers recognized that the ultimate strength of any country is individually armed citizens working together for the common good and if necessary to overthrow a tyrannical gov't, but even back then cannons (and other crew served weapons) were not items that civilians owned
I beg to differ with that one. Most of the ships(privateers) used back then were privately owned(hence the term PRIVATEer). They had cannon.


Pistols, rifles and shotguns in the right hands can stop any army, regardless of whether they possess crew-served weaponry. No one needs to serve as cannon fodder to stop such devices. They all run out of fuel eventually whether they fire a shot or not.
'Till they run out of ammo they are useful, it isn't a matter of fuel. These devices can be refueled and rearmed pretty much with impunity as long as they have ammo. These weapons are designed to wipe out foot soldiers. That's why they were invented. Without the necessary arms to destroy such weapons, the foot soldier is nothing more than cannon fodder. I'll die to protect the Constitution, my family, brethren, city, town state, and country. But, I'm not going to sacrifice myself in hopes of causing a tank or machine gun nest to run out of ammo. And, I'm not going to abide some dumb-ass law and not McGiver up a bomb of some sort to take out that tank or nest. It would be much better for me and everyone else to survive any such encounter. Having a ready stock of the arms necessary to the task is what the protections in the Second Amendment are all about.

Back on topic, if the 2nd A meant that the civilian population should be able to resist domestic/foreign organized armies. The term "arms" should mean that we the people should be PROPERLY armed to handle those circumstances.
It is possible, but not likely for individuals to own such items, but rather organized militias. It has been argued that that is the logical ends of the "collective" interpretation of the 2nd Amendment, namely that States would have to have parity with the standing central government military and therefore should possess missiles, nukes, chemical weapons, etc.
This represents a misconception. First, states cannot have a standing army(Article I, Section 10, Clause (3). I assume you are referring to the National Guard when you mention the "organized militia". The National Guard is a portion of the militia in the employ of the United States(Article I, Section 8, Clause (16)), not a state. Any "parity " comes from the people being individually armed. That effectively torpedoes the "collective" interpretation of the Second Amendment. The Second Amendment does not need to be interpreted. It needs to be obeyed. Period.

Under the individual interpretation though, such items would likely not be considered arms that give parity. "Properly armed" is relative, even if you have the exact same arms as a soldier, you still aren't properly armed as they have had tactics and training that give them an advantage one on one. However since civilians far outnumber soldiers, that advantage disappears even if civilians were armed with outdated technology.
You are confusing training(well regulated) for being armed. We are supposed to have arms so that we might train on our own. We can train(as I do, even at 60) like any soldier might. As quatin points out in Comment #75,
...Not being ALLOWED to be equally armed is something that cannot be counter balanced. ...

ksnectieman
woodcdi, I hope you do not mind me shortening that to woody?
Please do!

As for the "permission slip", I've got one too. What is even more unconstitutional than having to get a permit to carry a gun is the law that makes carrying a gun illegal in the first place. The permit process does nothing more than provide an exception to the original unconstitutional law. Without that unconstitutional law, there would be no need or opportunity to "require" you to get a permit. Look at Alaska and Vermont: There is no law forbidding carrying arms, hence no possibility to require a permit.

quatin
Butt in any time you like. This is an open forum. And, AMEN on our Founding Father's choice of the word "arms".

hugh damright
Still on the "collective rights" thing, eh? Well, owning a nuke for a law abiding citizen is not about forcing their will upon everyone else. That is for despots, tyrants, terrorists, dictators, theocracies, oligarchies, monarchies, and the like. For the law abiding citizen, it is for defense when called out for militia duty or when the state turns against the law abiding citizen. Quatin summed it up well in comment #59.

vynx your quote...
History repeats itself thats why!

History repeats itself thats why the 2A is still and always important.

And civilizations rise and fall they seem to have a cycle like so many other things in life and when they fall you want to be able to protect and defend.

The people who thing/say oh that can't happen here in America are idiots if they can predict the future take them to Vegas and get rich! Many countries in history have thought that can't happen here we are so enlightened and civilized and safe but things change all the time!
... points out an undeniable truth: Governments with their powers come and go, but people with their rights live on.

grampster
The 2A is the linchpin that holds the whole Constitution together. The Statists will never, ever understand this because they don't want to understand it. It's not that they are incapable of understanding the meaning of the 2A, they do! They understand it too well! That is why the Statists want to destroy it. The average citizen has been lulled into complacity by 100 years of being somewhat civilized and being inculcated with the notion that the government is our friend. A nation of laws and not men is a fine system. But the men must make sure the laws follow the handbook; The Constitution. There are many instances where this is not the case. The government is a tool not a friend. If it is maintained and used properly things will function well. If not, it will become tyrannical. Witness the eminant domain ruling by the SCOTUS or the McCain-Fingold campaign finance law or any number of other rulings or laws that contradict the spirit of The Constitution.
Well said, and a wake-up call everyone should heed!

hugh damright
I think there is one overwhelming argument which is that an individual with a rifle is not a threat to free government, but an individual with a nuclear weapon would be a tremendous threat. One of the biggest threats to free government is that too much power will end up in the hands of too few people ... and an individual with a nuke seems to be such a threat. In contrast, with rifles, it would take many people, theoretically a majority, to use force to take over.
That's very statist of you to put the concerns of government above the people. Too much power in the hands of too few people is when the power in the hands of those running government outweighs the power in the hands of the people. And, can you explain what a "free government" is? Since it's not a term everyone uses, you could be talking about a free dictator to the likes of Kim Jong Il, or Sodamn Hinsane, or our old nemesis Adolph Hitler. Some clarity would be appreciated.

Woody

Look at your rights and freedoms as what would be required to survive and be free as if there were no government. If that doesn't convince you to take a stand and protect your inalienable rights and freedoms, nothing will. If that doesn't convince you to maintain your personal sovereignty, you are already someone else's subject. If you don't secure your rights and freedoms to maintain your personal sovereignty now, it'll be too late to come to me for help when they come for you. I will already be dead because I had to stand alone. B.E.Wood
 
He's right. The 2A is "archaic." So are all the other Amendments.

So,69chevy,tell him you don't have to listen to him because of the archaic 1st amendment which is allowing him "his" freedom of speech.
 
I think there is one overwhelming argument which is that an individual with a rifle is not a threat to free government, but an individual with a nuclear weapon would be a tremendous threat. One of the biggest threats to free government is that too much power will end up in the hands of too few people ... and an individual with a nuke seems to be such a threat. In contrast, with rifles, it would take many people, theoretically a majority, to use force to take over.

I disagree on that argument being "overwhelming". An individual with a rifle could easily overpower a group of unarmed citizens. It would take much less than a majority of gun owners to overpower and take over the rest of the country had they been unarmed. (Relating this to one man with a nuclear weapon and the rest of the country without.) This is quite similar to the anti-gun approach, that allowing rifles to the common citizen gives one person/group too much power to take the freedom of another.
What I think you are actually implying is the degree of power. A nuclear weapon will give you a LARGER degree of power than a gun. However, a gun will give you a LARGER degree of power than a knife. Nowhere in the 2nd A does it state a boundary of power. If you try to apply a limit to the term "ARMS" from the 2nd A I don't see how you could justify a gun being within bounds, but not a nuclear device/artillery piece/etc.

So again, I say if you do not truly believe the 2nd A is to allow the people to combat domestic/foreign armies, then it has become archaic such that few people support it's TRUE meaning.
 
I do not think quatin is listening to me. if you want a nuke, and you have the money to purchase it (multiple millions)? buy it. The federal government should have no control there.

This is a government, (of, by, and for the people),,,,, we should be in charge, You, Me , and Bill Gates. IF Bill thinks his purchase of a nuke will make us bow, that is his choice. Every one makes choices to live or die with. SO TELL ME,,, Quatin???? How long before someone puts a .308 slug into dear sweet Bill,,,, if he abuses his power? ( assuming of course, that the second amendmet is honored as fact?
 
If you try to apply a limit to the term "ARMS" from the 2nd A I don't see how you could justify a gun being within bounds, but not a nuclear device/artillery piece/etc.

So again, I say if you do not truly believe the 2nd A is to allow the people to combat domestic/foreign armies, then it has become archaic such that few people support it's TRUE meaning.
The original intent was not that individuals must have military powers sufficient to check the US. Quite the contrary, the original intent was that any military power be subordinate to the civil power. And I reckon a nuclear weapon is a military power. And as such, the Second Amendment requires that any such weapon be controlled, not by an individual, but by the civil power. So please don't tell me that individuals need nukes and that if I don't agree then I don't believe in the true meaning Second Amendment.
 
hugh damright

The original intent was not that individuals must have military powers sufficient to check the US.

Where you getting this from? Must be something like; "The Bill of Rights as Annotated by Diane Feinstein, Ted Kennedy, Chuck Shumer, and Sarah Brady: Edited by George Soros".

Woody


There is perspective and there is pretense. No amount of bombast or emotion can truthfully equate the two. One does not add validity to the other. Bombast and emotion added to pretense does not equal perspective. Reason, fact, and logic? That's a different matter. That will net you perspective every time. B.E.Wood
 
I consider this statement false

"The original intent was not that individuals must have military powers sufficient to check the US."

I consider this one to be true
"Quite the contrary, the original intent was that any military power be subordinate to the civil power."

And the second amendment is not limited by what you "reckon" belongs only to the military.

"And I reckon a nuclear weapon is a military power."

And the second amendment says nothing about limiting what weapons are allowed.


"And as such, the Second Amendment requires that any such weapon be controlled, not by an individual, but by the civil power."

How you choose to distort your opinion of the second amendment is unimportant to me.

So please don't tell me that individuals need nukes and that if I don't agree then I don't believe in the true meaning Second Amendment.
 
I think that the main problem is that each person has a differing view on what is meant by "Arms".

Some pro-gun people think that "arms" refers to every weapon on Earth, from pistols to ICBMs.

All of the Antis, however, think that "arms" refers to the connection between hand and torso (except for their "militia", the National Guard).

Personally, I define it as any weapon that can be carried and operated by a single person. This may include weapons such as the M-388 "Davy Crockett", so it could be used as an argument for nukes.
 
I do not think quatin is listening to me. if you want a nuke, and you have the money to purchase it (multiple millions)? buy it. The federal government should have no control there.

This is a government, (of, by, and for the people),,,,, we should be in charge, You, Me , and Bill Gates. IF Bill thinks his purchase of a nuke will make us bow, that is his choice. Every one makes choices to live or die with. SO TELL ME,,, Quatin???? How long before someone puts a .308 slug into dear sweet Bill,,,, if he abuses his power? ( assuming of course, that the second amendmet is honored as fact?

I think I stated this earlier. There is NO LAW preventing you from POSSESSING such weapons (except biological/chemical weapons). HOWEVER, there are many restrictions in place that makes acquiring such weapons impossible. Try going to Lock-heed to buy a F-22 raptor. The US military contracts many private companies for their equipment. Companies like Colt are allowed to sell "civilianized" rifles back into the public, but Lock-heed is not allowed to sell any form of their missile systems back into the public. Could you tolerate Colt or any firearms contractor not being allowed to sell any form of their firearms to the public? It would be the same such that you are not BANNED from owning firearms, but all contractors are not ALLOWED to sell them to you. Is this infringement different for firearms than nukes/missiles?


The original intent was not that individuals must have military powers sufficient to check the US. Quite the contrary, the original intent was that any military power be subordinate to the civil power. And I reckon a nuclear weapon is a military power. And as such, the Second Amendment requires that any such weapon be controlled, not by an individual, but by the civil power. So please don't tell me that individuals need nukes and that if I don't agree then I don't believe in the true meaning Second Amendment.

Why not? The Anti-gunner says you don't need guns, yet you say they don't believe in the Second Amendment. The Anti-gunner says that guns are acceptable when in a civil, but not individual context. What differentiates a nuke to be military power and a gun to be civil power? Also, if a nuke was military power, how does the civilian control it? Unless you give control to every civilian (basically handing them nukes anyways) you would have to allow them to own a nuke. That's the irony of the mutual destruction theory. You defend a nuke by having a nuke. Also, what about foreign governments (IE the British Empire of the time). How do you subject foreign militaries to the civil power of the US without proper armaments?
 
G36-UK

The definition of "arms" is in the dictionary. These people who would place a different meaning to the word are simply too chicken to say they want to limit arms to citizens, or are too lazy to go through the process of amending the Constitution to limit arms, or truthfully know such an amendment would never be accepted(ratified) and are trying to reach their goal dishonestly.

Please note that one man can fly a B-52 and drop its load all by himself. Still, that is immaterial. The protection of the right is unambiguous. The right itself is absolute and unlimited. "Bear" also means "to bear up", meaning to bring forth - deliver - such as towing it behind your vehicle, or flying it over a target, or launching it with a missile, or driving it around on its link belted treads, or stuffing it in your pocket.

Woody

"Gun Control" seeks to put bounds upon, and possibly effect the elimination of the protection of our inalienable Right to Keep and Bear Arms. Don't be led astray with the inference that it is "gun" control. It's an attempt to hide the discussion from the strict scrutiny of the Constitution. What is under attack are rights of the people. Guns are inanimate objects; tools of freedom and self defense, primarily. Dehumanizing the discourse by calling it "gun control" or "gun rights" lessens the concern from what the significance is when the discussion is directed at the HUMAN right being infringed. B.E.Wood
 
If you really wish to understand the meaning of the 2nd Amendment to the Constitution of the United States you need look no further than the Declaration of Independence. When you read it you are left with the profound realization that it is your Civic Duty as a Citizen of the United States to overthrow your own government by whatever means possible if it reaches such a state. Some passages from that great document.

"When in the Course of human events it becomes necessary for one people to dissolve the political bands which have connected them with another and to assume among the powers of the earth, the separate and equal station to which the Laws of Nature and of Nature's God entitle them, a decent respect to the opinions of mankind requires that they should declare the causes which impel them to the separation. We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty and the pursuit of Happiness. — That to secure these rights, Governments are instituted among Men, deriving their just powers from the consent of the governed, — That whenever any Form of Government becomes destructive of these ends, it is the Right of the People to alter or to abolish it, and to institute new Government, laying its foundation on such principles and organizing its powers in such form, as to them shall seem most likely to effect their Safety and Happiness. Prudence, indeed, will dictate that Governments long established should not be changed for light and transient causes; and accordingly all experience hath shewn that mankind are more disposed to suffer, while evils are sufferable than to right themselves by abolishing the forms to which they are accustomed. But when a long train of abuses and usurpations, pursuing invariably the same Object evinces a design to reduce them under absolute Despotism, it is their right, it is their duty, to throw off such Government, and to provide new Guards for their future security. — Such has been the patient sufferance of these Colonies; and such is now the necessity which constrains them to alter their former Systems of Government. The history of the present King of Great Britain is a history of repeated injuries and usurpations, all having in direct object the establishment of an absolute Tyranny over these States."



If the American Citizen is not allowed to bear Arms as provided in the 2nd Amendment then we cannot fulfill our Solemn Civic Duty as laid down in our Declaration of Independence .


Stop and think.
Had our Forefathers not had Arms where would we be today.
 
I feel I need to clarify something. I do not think bill gates should buy a nuke. I do not think anyone should. BUT I think it is their choice under the second amendment in our bill of rights, as it is written.
My fear is that if we let someone decide that a nuke is not permitted, the next thing they will do is decide that hand grenades are not permitted (OOPS we restricted that already). Next they would want to ban machine guns (OOPS They did). Then they might decide that anything over fifty caliber needs to be regulated (OOPS). Then they might decide that SOME people should not own anything (!!!yes, we did that, and it is not only accepted, but praised by many people, even here on a firearm forum.)
I think the second amendment means just exactly what it says, and I will accept it for me,,,, and for YOU, and for the ex con down the street. including even hand grenades, and machine guns, and small concealable pistols.
If we allow any limitations they will be expanded a little at a time, until everyone, and everything is controlled. I would not trust a politician to have that much power. Honor the second amendment as much as we do the first, that is what the writers of it meant.
 
The definition of "arms" is in the dictionary. These people who would place a different meaning to the word are simply too chicken to say they want to limit arms to citizens, or are too lazy to go through the process of amending the Constitution to limit arms, or truthfully know such an amendment would never be accepted(ratified) and are trying to reach their goal dishonestly.

Good point, I can see what you mean by the dishonesty of the antis, we've had that problem for years.

Please note that one man can fly a B-52 and drop its load all by himself. Still, that is immaterial. The protection of the right is unambiguous. The right itself is absolute and unlimited. "Bear" also means "to bear up", meaning to bring forth - deliver - such as towing it behind your vehicle, or flying it over a target, or launching it with a missile, or driving it around on its link belted treads, or stuffing it in your pocket.

So noted. Thanks for clarifying.
 
Of course the 2A is archaic. It somehow has left room for misinterpretation of "shall not be infringed" and it has no penalty clause. It should be something more like this, with thanks to L. Neil Smith for the first paragraph.
,
Every man, woman, and responsible child has an unalienable individual, civil, Constitutional, and human right to obtain, own, and carry, openly or concealed, any weapon -- rifle, shotgun, handgun, machinegun, anything -- any time, any place, without asking anyone's permission.

Any sworn government official -- legislative, executive, or judicial -- who infringes on this right in any way, or even proposes an infringement, shall be tried for treason, and, if convicted, by a jury of his peers, shall be immediately executed, on the same day as the guilty verdict.
 
The Second Amendment is clearly not archaic and quite applicable today, perhaps more so than it was in 1776.

Today we have nukes, chemical weapons, and biological weapons in the hands of all kinds of people. Governments world-wide are as corrupt as ever. We currently have a genocide going on. Therefore, I find it not only my right but my duty as a human to own the best weapons that are available so that I may help the oppressed, as well as defend myself.
 
What are protected arms under the 2A?

The Miller decision leaves us with a perhaps disquieting conclusion that weapons shown to be part of ordinary military equipment, and which could contribute to the common defense, ARE protected by the Second Amendment and thus cannot be subjected to NFA restrictions.
http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=us&vol=307&invol=174

A CRITICAL GUIDE TO THE SECOND AMENDMENT by Glenn Harlan Reynolds is pretty good on helping define what weapons are protected.
http://www.guncite.com/journals/reycrit.html#h2.3.2

Reynolds refers to large crew-served weapons as not protected under the 2A, and then generally cites machine guns. MP5s, M16s, and even M240 SAWs are all machine guns in regular military usage, man portable, and are both designed and intended to be employed by a single individual. Twould seem that buzzguns one could reasonably put forth can be used by one person are protected arms under the 2A.
 
If people say the 2a is bad, I would like to see a study of how many people the 1st a killed. With holly wood hiding behind it and making movies that glorafy violence and showing the only way to get ahead in life is with weapon.
 
kengrubb

I copied this comment of mine from another recent thread. It might shed some new light on US v Miller for you:

US v Miller

Here is the main line of reasoning that shows what the Court actually said in U.S. v. Miller(1939)... and how it doesn't mean diddly.

Misdirection

Look at what the Court said here: "IN THE ABSENCE OF ANY EVIDENCE TENDING TO SHOW THAT POSSESSION OR USE OF A "SHOTGUN HAVING A BARREL OF LESS THAN EIGHTEEN INCHES IN LENGTH" AT THIS TIME HAS SOME REASONABLE RELATIONSHIP TO THE PRESERVATION OR EFFICIENCY OF A WELL REGULATED MILITIA, WE CANNOT SAY THAT THE SECOND AMENDMENT GUARANTEES THE RIGHT TO KEEP AND BEAR SUCH AN INSTRUMENT." Referring to the text I put in bold, the Court said that they could not come to a conclusion without any evidence. The Court did not say that the "SHOTGUN HAVING A BARREL OF LESS THAN EIGHTEEN INCHES IN LENGTH" did not have "...SOME REASONABLE RELATIONSHIP TO THE PRESERVATION OR EFFICIENCY OF A WELL REGULATED MILITIA,..." If the Court had come to the conclusion that the sawed-off shotgun WASN'T a viable weapon for use in the militia, it would have said so. It didn't say so. It would have needed the same evidence to show it was as it would have needed to show it wasn't!

Further in that same paragraph the Court said, "CERTAINLY IT IS NOT WITHIN JUDICIAL NOTICE THAT THIS WEAPON IS ANY PART OF THE ORDINARY MILITARY EQUIPMENT OR THAT ITS USE COULD CONTRIBUTE TO THE COMMON DEFENSE." Judicial notice is "n. the authority of a judge to accept as facts certain matters which are of common knowledge from sources which guarantee accuracy or are a matter of official record, without the need for evidence establishing the fact. Examples of matters given judicial notice are public and court records, tides, times of sunset and sunrise, government rainfall and temperature records, known historic events or the fact that ice melts in the sun." Here again, the Court is saying they don't know as a matter of record, don't have reference to any common knowledge, don't have a guaranteed source to refer to the fact in question, and can't say off the top of their head whether or not the sawed-off shotgun fit in the militia and, therefore, would require evidence to make the call.


Pretense and Amending the Constitution by Rote

The Court, without proper amendment, amended the the Constitution on its own by interjecting a requirement not present in the Constitution, nor has power been granted to Congress to legislate any such requirement - "CERTAINLY IT IS NOT WITHIN JUDICIAL NOTICE THAT THIS WEAPON IS ANY PART OF THE ORDINARY MILITARY EQUIPMENT OR THAT ITS USE COULD CONTRIBUTE TO THE COMMON DEFENSE." - and any such infringement is expressly forbidden by Second Amendment that a weapon must be shown to have a viable place in the militia. The Court simply wrote their decision as if such a requirement existed. The Court even admitted to interpreting the Constitution. The Court cited Article I, Section 8, Clause (16): THE CONSTITUTION AS ORIGINALLY ADOPTED GRANTED TO THE CONGRESS POWER "TO PROVIDE FOR CALLING FORTH THE MILITIA TO EXECUTE THE LAWS OF THE UNION, SUPPRESS INSURRECTIONS AND REPEL INVASIONS; TO PROVIDE FOR ORGANIZING, ARMING, AND DISCIPLINING, THE MILITIA, AND FOR GOVERNING SUCH PART OF THEM AS MAY BE EMPLOYED IN THE SERVICE OF THE UNITED STATES, RESERVING TO THE STATES RESPECTIVELY, THE APPOINTMENT OF THE OFFICERS, AND THE AUTHORITY OF TRAINING THE MILITIA ACCORDING TO THE DISCIPLINE PRESCRIBED BY CONGRESS." Then the Court said: "WITH OBVIOUS PURPOSE TO ASSURE THE CONTINUATION AND RENDER POSSIBLE THE EFFECTIVENESS OF SUCH FORCES THE DECLARATION AND GUARANTEE OF THE SECOND AMENDMENT WERE MADE. IT MUST BE INTERPRETED AND APPLIED WITH THAT END IN VIEW." How they pulled any arms qualification requirements out of that, I cannot fathom. Even if that requirement was in Article I, Section 8, Clause (16), it would have been vacated by the later dated(and therefore superseded by) the Second Amendment!!

Wordsmithing

The Court was quite sneaky and devious in its wording with this non-ruling. Look at this: The Court said, "WE ARE UNABLE TO ACCEPT THE CONCLUSION OF THE COURT BELOW AND THE CHALLENGED JUDGMENT MUST BE REVERSED. THE CAUSE WILL BE REMANDED FOR FURTHER PROCEEDINGS." So, let's look at "WE ARE UNABLE TO ACCEPT THE CONCLUSION OF THE COURT BELOW ..." What does that tell you? It tells you that the Court didn't say that the conclusion of the court below was wrong, the Court said because there was no evidence presented, it cannot accept the conclusion. They said in the beginning that "In the absence of any evidence....we cannot say...". Then the Court continued with, "..AND THE CHALLENGED JUDGMENT MUST BE REVERSED. When ever the Court reverses a lower court ruling, it does not include anything like "...must be...". The Court did not reverse or vacate the judgment of the lower court. The Court didn't say the judgement IS reversed of vacated. "THE CAUSE WILL BE REMANDED FOR FURTHER PROCEEDINGS." The Court instructed the lower court to proceed further on the case, presumably, to have the needed evidence presented to support the lower court's conclusion that the NFA is unconstitutional by showing that the sawed-off shotgun is a viable weapon for the militia. Sadly, Miller had been murdered before the case even hit the Supreme Court, and Layton(Miller's co-defendant) accepted a plea. There was no one left to continue the case. Don't forget, however, that this, for all intents and purposes, is moot in the light of the Second Amendment.



Misdirection

The Court's ducking of one aspect of "judicial notice" is also despicable. That "judicial notice" is the obvious capability of a sawed-off shotgun to deliver a lethal dose of shot. I would equate what a member of the militia can do with a sawed-off shotgun to a similar level of common knowledge with the common knowledge that if you place a chunk of ice in the sun, it will melt. Again, this is moot in the light of the prohibition placed upon all government to infringe upon the Right to Keep and Bear Arms in the Second Amendment.

More "misdirection"

It is not within the purview of the Court to up and say, "HEY! You are misinterpreting/misunderstanding what was said in this case!" Not until some other case is brought back up to the Court on appeal can the Court address this again. The Court did not uphold the NFA, but it didn't shoot it down, either. This case, US v. Miller is undecided to this very day. All the citing of US v. Miller as sealing the notion that Congress may infringe the RKBA if it has to do with interstate commerce is just as bogus. As I pointed out for the "militia" clause, the Second Amendment was ratified after the Commerce Clause, and the prohibition on Congress to infringe upon the RKBA in the Second Amendment would supersede any supposed power of Congress to infringe the right that might be misconstrued from the Commerce Clause.

This from the Court in US v Miller TAKES THE CAKE! "MOST IF NOT ALL OF THE STATES HAVE ADOPTED PROVISIONS TOUCHING THE RIGHT TO KEEP AND BEAR ARMS. DIFFERENCES IN THE LANGUAGE EMPLOYED IN THESE HAVE NATURALLY LED TO SOMEWHAT VARIANT CONCLUSIONS CONCERNING THE SCOPE OF THE RIGHT GUARANTEED. BUT NONE OF THEM SEEM TO AFFORD ANY MATERIAL SUPPORT FOR THE CHALLENGED RULING OF THE COURT BELOW." Seems they conveniently "forgot" that the Second Amendment is a part of the Constitution and that the Second Amendment is, therefore, part of the Supreme Law of the Land, and "...anything in the constitution or laws of any state to the contrary (is) notwithstanding." It doesn't matter WHAT any state law or constitution has to say about the RKBA. THE COURT HAD(HAS) ALL IT NEEDED IN THE SECOND AMENDMENT! What the Court said here is no different than what some are doing now - looking to foreign law to make their rulings!

Hope this helps.

Woody
 
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