rainbowbob said:
...But will someone please respond to the question I have asked: What does the restriction of 2A rights have to do with non-violent crime and punishment?...
If that is not intended to be a rhetorical question, what could any answer that anyone on this board conceivably give to that question have to do with anything? It would be a bare guess, bald speculation. How could anyone here give any answer that would mean anything?
If someone decides to seriously pursue ground breaking litigation to get the prohibited person provisions of the GCA of 1968 tossed out or narrowed, the question will no doubt come up. The government will set out its arguments for why there is a compelling state interest. Those arguments will be worked out by a bunch of very seasoned lawyers reviewing reams of material, including thousands of pages of turgid prose that make up the reports of the debates on the legislation as laid out in the
Congressional Record. They will form the government's arguments based on an enormous volume of material.
Those arguments will be challenged by the side seeking to nullify the law, and those counter arguments will be developed and framed through a similarly exhaustive process. And a court will decide which argument holds water.
If one wants to pursue lobbying Congress to change the law, do you think that any sort of answer could induce the members of Congress to vote for change alone those lines. What they will want is a good reason to change the law, i.e., sufficient support among their constituents for changes, and a good story to tell their constituents next re-election time about why they voted to let convicted felons have guns.
And putting aside questions of litigation to overturn the law or lobbying to change the law, what does chasing the chimera of a philosophical answer to that question get us. It won't change the reality of the law, nor will it resolve the discontent of those opposed to the law on principle.
The law will remain valid and in effect.