Homeowner Shoots Suspect in Home Invasion

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I personally wouldn't mourn for this criminal's children. Maybe they have a chance to be decent people now, unlike their dad.
 
trueblue1776 said:
I personally wouldn't mourn for this criminal's children. Maybe they have a chance to be decent people now, unlike their dad.
i have to differ on this statement. i do morn for the children they have lost a parential influence in thier lives. one that could have been a good influence if he had chosen to be so. but he made a very poor decision that got him killed. i can only hope they learn from his mistake and do not follow in daddys footsteps. but because he isnot there to tell them it is wrong perhaps thier mother will be able to impress this lesson upon them. lets face it one day they will ask what happened to daddy and she will have to answer it. lets only pray she can make them understand that the reason daddy isnt there is because he made some verry bad choices that got him killed. leaving them and thier mother alone in the world.
 
beerslurpy said:
My favorite passage of the bible. Even better than "sell your cloak and buy a sword."

Btw, the commandment is "thall shalt not murder" not "thall shalt not kill." The God referenced in the bible is definitely OK with killing as long as the right people get killed. Hence the commandments to kill the amalekites, to kill burglars or to kill people in self defense, fire and brimstone, etc.

Forgiving people is one thing. Letting them murder, rape or rob you is another thing. I think the bible even says something informative about not valuing your own life enough to defend it, and how the almighty generally disapproves of this.

You are as accurate in your statement 'Btw, the commandment is "thall shalt not murder" not "thall shalt not kill."' as it is possible to be with the English language. The reason that the translation was confusing in the first place was that the Aramaic word was something of a cross between what we would consider first degree murder and 2nd degree murder, it prohibits killing by intentional murder or by violent accidental killing without the intent to kill. King James era scholars though, only considered "murder" to be murder if it were intentional, and so used a broader term with the belief that people reading the text would be well educated enough to understand that they weren't referring to killing anything or anyone in any situation. Most modern texts use "murder" and have a footnote with a reference to the specific Aramaic term.
 
Stand_Watie said:
You are as accurate in your statement 'Btw, the commandment is "thall shalt not murder" not "thall shalt not kill."' as it is possible to be with the English language. The reason that the translation was confusing in the first place was that the Aramaic word was something of a cross between what we would consider first degree murder and 2nd degree murder, it prohibits killing by intentional murder or by violent accidental killing without the intent to kill. King James era scholars though, only considered "murder" to be murder if it were intentional, and so used a broader term with the belief that people reading the text would be well educated enough to understand that they weren't referring to killing anything or anyone in any situation. Most modern texts use "murder" and have a footnote with a reference to the specific Aramaic term.

Actually, the ten commandments were written in biblical hebrew, as was the book of Exodus itself.

No one recognizable as Aramaeans lived in Aram at the time Exodus was originally written. Aram = 1200BC, Exodus = 1400-1250 BC depending upon when the pharaohs lived.

I could be mistaken about this, but I think Aramaeic is a New Testament thing.

The internet is awesome for appearing knowledgable about the bible.
 
beerslurpy said:
Actually, the ten commandments were written in biblical hebrew, as was the book of Exodus itself.

No one recognizable as Aramaeans lived in Aram at the time Exodus was originally written. Aram = 1200BC, Exodus = 1400-1250 BC depending upon when the pharaohs lived.

I could be mistaken about this, but I think Aramaeic is a New Testament thing.

The internet is awesome for appearing knowledgable about the bible.

I'm pretty sure the New Testament was Greek. You're correct about Exodus. I had transposed in my head whether the OT was primarily Hebrew with portions in Aramaic or the obverse. Hebrew it is - you can look up a good Hebrew translation here if you read Hebrew, or install a language pak if you don't.

http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt0.htm
 
Stand_Watie said:
I'm pretty sure the New Testament was Greek. You're correct about Exodus. I had transposed in my head whether the OT was primarily Hebrew with portions in Aramaic or the obverse. Hebrew it is - you can look up a good Hebrew translation here if you read Hebrew, or install a language pak if you don't.

http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt0.htm
you may be wrong about that one on the new testament it was aramaic and couldnt be translated till the roseta stone was found. the roseta stone was the same anouncment in three languages one of whitch was greek, the other were aramaic and latin i beleve though i am no scoler in this aera by any strech of the imagination. but i did see the a&e presentation of the roseta stone.
 
Aramaeic is used in a few areas of the old testament, but most of that is ancient biblical hebrew.

The christian bible was not actually produced in what could be considered an authoratative form for several hundred years. Remember there were many gospels and a number of alternative and mystical christian sects that flourished before the 4th century. The new testament was produced entirely in greek, but many of the documents use to assemble it may have earlier been written in aramaeic.

It helps to remember that christianity is basically a roman religion, not a jewish religion. Thats why you get all the pagan holidays (saturnalia, spring solstice, etc) and all the pagan traditions. Not to mention the idol worship (oh sorry, I meant relics), the polytheism (praying to saints?), etc. And most of the 600+ commandments of the old testament are ignored. They basically borrowed what they liked from judaism and incorporated all the preexisting stuff into the christ mythology.
 
gremlin_bros said:
you may be wrong about that one on the new testament it was aramaic and couldnt be translated till the roseta stone was found. the roseta stone was the same anouncment in three languages one of whitch was greek, the other were aramaic and latin i beleve though i am no scoler in this aera by any strech of the imagination. but i did see the a&e presentation of the roseta stone.

Then you must not have paid much attention. The Rosetta Stone only has Greek and two kinds of Egyptian, not Aramaic.

http://www.ancientegypt.co.uk/writing/rosetta.html

What is the Rosetta Stone?

The Rosetta Stone is a stone with writing on it in two languages (Egyptian and Greek), using three scripts (hieroglyphic, demotic and Greek).

Why is it in three different scripts?

The Rosetta Stone is written in three scripts because when it was written, there were three scripts being used in Egypt.

The first was hieroglyphic which was the script used for important or religious documents.

Detail of hieroglyphic and demotic script on the Rosetta Stone
Detail of hieroglyphic and demotic script on the Rosetta Stone

The second was demotic which was the common script of Egypt.

The third was Greek which was the language of the rulers of Egypt at that time.

The Rosetta Stone was written in all three scripts so that the priests, government officials and rulers of Egypt could read what it said.
 
Too late.

Closed for thread veer. Folks, we don't discuss religion on THR.

pax
 
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