When I took a class concerning the lawful use of deadly force, the instructor taught me that I could only use deadly force against an attacker that intended inflict death or serious bodily harm upon me, and when these three conditions were met:
1) Immediacy - the assailant will attack me now, not an hour later or tomorrow.
2) Ability - the assailent has the means to inflict serious bodily injury or death upon me.
3) Intent - the assailant's intent is to do me harm; if he's about to accidently drop a piano on me, I can't shoot him.
This legal principle is consistent with my own moral beliefs regarding the use of deadly force.
I was wondering how you all think this moral/legal principle applies to foreign policy, and if the difference between your views and mine could help to explain the general unpopularity of my opinions regarding he Iraqi war.
This is how I see it if we apply these three requirements to Iraq at the point in time prior to our initiation of deadly force:
1) Immediacy - No. We were in no immediate danger of attack.
2) Ability - No. None of Iraq's weapons or military forces posed a significant threat to the United States. (Except, perhaps, their ability to disrupt our oil supply.)
3) Intent - Maybe, but thats my gut feeling and not based on evidence. Having a hunch probably wouldn't hold up in court.
What do you think? Or is the beer getting to me?
1) Immediacy - the assailant will attack me now, not an hour later or tomorrow.
2) Ability - the assailent has the means to inflict serious bodily injury or death upon me.
3) Intent - the assailant's intent is to do me harm; if he's about to accidently drop a piano on me, I can't shoot him.
This legal principle is consistent with my own moral beliefs regarding the use of deadly force.
I was wondering how you all think this moral/legal principle applies to foreign policy, and if the difference between your views and mine could help to explain the general unpopularity of my opinions regarding he Iraqi war.
This is how I see it if we apply these three requirements to Iraq at the point in time prior to our initiation of deadly force:
1) Immediacy - No. We were in no immediate danger of attack.
2) Ability - No. None of Iraq's weapons or military forces posed a significant threat to the United States. (Except, perhaps, their ability to disrupt our oil supply.)
3) Intent - Maybe, but thats my gut feeling and not based on evidence. Having a hunch probably wouldn't hold up in court.
What do you think? Or is the beer getting to me?