Is Kentucky's BoR the people's prior reservation of rights?

Is Kentucky's Bill of Rights a No Trespassing Sign?

  • Is the meaning of Kentucky's BoR self-evident?

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • Does Section 2 & 26 mean exactly what they state?

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • Does the General Assembly have any lawful authority to violate this BoR?

    Votes: 0 0.0%
  • Do you understand what constitutes lawful authority?

    Votes: 1 100.0%

  • Total voters
    1
  • Poll closed .
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I own property in the Commonwealth of Kentucky so I'll use Kentucky's Bill of Rights to base my poll question on. Section 1 states: "All men are, by nature, free and equal, and have certain inherent and inalienable rights, among which may be reckoned: Section 2: Absolute and arbitrary power over the lives, liberty and property of freemen exists nowhere in a republic, not even in the largest majority. Section 26: To guard against transgression of the high powers which we have delegated , We Declare the every thing in this Bill of Rights is excepted out of the general powers of government, and shall forever remain inviolate; and all laws contrary thereto, or contrary to this Constitution shall be void."

Does the above quote from Kentucky's Bill of Rights place a No Trespassing Sign on the people of Kentucky's certain inherent and inaliienable rights? Isn't it kinda like saying don't even go there?!
 
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