LG; I believe you're clouding the issue of the Logan Act
by emphasizing the "negotiation" aspect. Please consider the "influence" aspect, to wit:
OK, the Logan Act, as already cited, states in part:
“Any citizen of the United States, wherever he may be, who, without authority of the United States, directly or indirectly commences or carries on any correspondence or intercourse with any foreign government or any officer or agent thereof, with intent to influence the measures or conduct of any foreign government or of any officer or agent thereof…”
And Pelosi, herself, stated:
"We expressed our interest in using our good offices in promoting peace between Israel and Syria,"
"We came in friendship, hope, and determined that the road to Damascus is a road to peace,"
Furthermore;
Pelosi, in published reports, characterized her planned meeting with Assad as a "fact finding" mission through which her delegation can "hopefully build the confidence" between the United States and Syria.
Now, friends and neighbors, does this sound like an “attempt to influence”? Does to me.
The very thing the Logan Act (a Federal law) specifically disallows, under penalty of fine and/or prison.
Now, does violating a Federal law make it unconstitutional? Considering that, in the purest sense, all Federal law must adhere to the Constitution, it de facto falls under the aegis of the Constitution.
Is it treasonous? Probably not, absent a state of declared war.
And so, it seems to me, the Logan Act was clearly violated. Rest my case.
ElZorro