Central Park Jogger case. The teens were convicted on nothing but their "confessions", which they recanted. I put confessions in quotes, because no teen actually admitted to being involved. Rather, they implicated the others. One teen didn’t confess at all. He was convicted, as they all were, on the testimony of the other teens.
So the exculpatory statements that each used in an attempt to get the others to take the rap is the same as a compelled statement?
That's not even a hasty generalization, it's simply a flawed analogy.
The point is that I do not think physically coerced confessions are common in this day and age.
"Naturally"?? How does protecting one person’s rights injure another’s? That’s the most ridiculous thing I’ve heard. What about the rights of an innocent person?"
I am interested that this concept is something you are not familar with.
Let us say that an accused, and guilty, man is released from custody on a 1st degree murder charge, due to problems with the admissibility of evidence on Constitutional grounds. This individual then goes out and kills again. Does not this action in protecting the rights of the accused, impede on the right of the victim to live a life without murderers. I do not know about you, but I believe that part of the social contract in our society is that the government will do its best to put away murderers.
Now, I am not saying that the accused do not have rights, I am merely asserting that the imposition of those rights has deliterious effects on society as a whole, and citizens as individuals. Thus, any discussion of rights of the accused has to keep this concept as central. The fact that you do not recognize this tension indicates that you will never be satisfied with a moderating approach, since you cannot appreciate the conflict properly.
I wasn't talking down to you. The question you ask could require a small book to answer, and is outside the scope of this discussion.
Actually you were. You have done so throughout our conversation. This was merely the worst example. I fully appreciate the difficulty of original intent research. Your comments suggested that if only I did a tad of research I would become educated to the difficulty. That is an insulting presumption. I have made no presumption of you, and instead confined myself to your comments here.
The issue posed, as the focus of this discussion was the fact that the Miranda warning requirement was created to secure the confessions obtained during interrogations.
To which I have disagreed. I believe that the Miranda doctrine was a creation of the Warren court based entirely on their belief that involuntary confessions were unconstitutional. I find it somewhat amusing that you are accusing one of the most liberal courts ever seen of creating a doctrine to protect the police. Unless you have new information that shows the Warren court as pro-police, I have to go with the abundant evidence I have thus been exposed to that indicates the opposite.
The issue was NOT the definition of a compelled confession. That is not what is being discussed. The issue is how ANY confession is viewed because of Miranda.
And Miranda goes to the voluntariness of the confession, which brings us back to the 5th Amendment compulsion clause. I believe that compulsion did not mean voluntary. It just meant compulsion as society determines compulsion. Determining that is problematic enough.
There are cases of valid, completely voluntary confessions being thrown out because Miranda wasn’t given. There are cases of compelled confessions being upheld because Miranda WAS given. This is not the way it should be, and THAT is the point of this discussion.
Miranda dissipates an intitial presumption of involuntariness. Unless the warning are given, the confession is presumed compelled. This does not mean 5th Amendment voluntariness will not be explored at trial by defense counsel. Miranda did not supplant this analysis, it is still open to explore the compulsion of the confession on a totality of circumstances test. Thus, I am not sure what your point is
The Miranda decision is wrong because it focuses on the wrong issue. Miranda’s conviction was not overturned because his confession was compelled, but because he didn’t know his rights. What then would have happened had the police given him a warning? It is possible that a suspect confession would have been held admissible. That is not the way it should be. The focus should be on the testimony, not whether the suspect knows his rights.
And right back we come to voluntariness again.
If someone is cognizant of his Consitutional rights, then it is presumed that any statements are voluntary, since the person knows he has the right to remain silent.
An interesting question is whether the warning is still necessary since it is apparent that everyone, almost to a person is aware of the Miranda warning.
In any event, I do not see how you can get to your analysis in a vacuum. In order to determine the voluntariness of any statement, it is neccesary for the court to determine the extent of the defendants knowledge of his rights. Thus, I as a law student, who has taken a number of Criminal Procedure courses, would be held to a higher standard then someone who did not have this knowledge.
And what does any of that have to do with your assertion...that *rights* are applied differently to different people? Everyone has the same rights.
Is that so? A felon is treated different from a non-felon. A child is treated differently from a non-child. A person in a highly regulated industry is treated differently from someone in a non-regulated industry. While rights have the same abstract force, in practical application, they tend to differ. It is the price of applying an abstraction to the concrete.
Why in the world would you treat them differently?? Are you saying that it's okay to beat one of them up because of the crime he is accused of?? What nonsense is that??
Notice that at no point of the discussion have I advocated physical coercion as an interrogation technique. Thus your statement has the indicia of a strawman technique. As a result your argument is flawed.
Let me be clear. Physical coercion should be barred because it is against cultural norms, it is unreliable, and it is wrong, period. That is not my argument. When the line becomes tricky is psychological coercion. It is not at all clear that all psychological coercion is inherently wrong, although naturally there are plenty of example of this type that would be beyond the pale. I do not feel like enumerating them all, and trust to your common sense not to use a strawman in an attempt to discount this argument
No I'm not. I never said or implied as such. My only point have been that the focus has shifted away from that very distinction, to whether a Miranda warning was given.
You stated
"Voluntary confessions are fine. The problem is with compelled confessions. We DON’T want those."
This clearly infers that you see a distinction between compelled and voluntary confessions. This is a clear implication from that statement. On the one hand, voluntary confessions, and on the other compelled confessions.
As I stated before, I do not believe that this distinction is as easily made as you make it out to be. I think that we all agree that physical coercion is to be excluded. You will find very few people that wish to include confession of this variety. However, pyschological coercion creates problems that are not as easily dispelled. Do you wish to exclude confession that have any color of psychcological coercion, regardless of how slight? If so, I disagree with you. The amount of psychological coercion reasonable in any situation is open to debate, of course, but are you willing to countenance any?
As far as the fact that the distinction has been forgotten, I must respectfully disagree. The issue of how to regulate psychological coercion is very much alive and well in the criminal justice system.