Gunsby_Blazen
Member
A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.
And
A well regulated Militia being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringe.
The comma after Militia, it changes the meaning of the Second Amendment, but does it change what it means for people, really?? The people still have the right to arm themselves. At least with my understanding.
Was the amendment not written so that he people can protect themselves from the tyranny of not only invading forces but from their own government as well? So are we not entitled to military arms? I am not an anarchist in any way at all. I am a patriotic democracy loving American. I am just speaking of this in terms of philosophy.
Concerning the context of when the document was written, the states did not want the federal government encroaching their sovereignty.
This leads me to my second gripe, the states have this right to arms and not the people. If that was true why is it included with individual rights? Perhaps state national guards are unconstitutional too because of their incorporation into the federal army. Some clarification please??
Heck I don’t know I was about to go on a rant…. I am sure you guys know much more about this than I, so please enlighten me…
There is a lot more for me to go on about but I will add more later to this if this argument picks up.
Again, I apologize for my stratified post, it doesn’t flow that well, I was just kind of ranting a bit because I just got done talking with someone who thinks guns should be highly regulated....
And
A well regulated Militia being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringe.
The comma after Militia, it changes the meaning of the Second Amendment, but does it change what it means for people, really?? The people still have the right to arm themselves. At least with my understanding.
Was the amendment not written so that he people can protect themselves from the tyranny of not only invading forces but from their own government as well? So are we not entitled to military arms? I am not an anarchist in any way at all. I am a patriotic democracy loving American. I am just speaking of this in terms of philosophy.
Concerning the context of when the document was written, the states did not want the federal government encroaching their sovereignty.
This leads me to my second gripe, the states have this right to arms and not the people. If that was true why is it included with individual rights? Perhaps state national guards are unconstitutional too because of their incorporation into the federal army. Some clarification please??
Heck I don’t know I was about to go on a rant…. I am sure you guys know much more about this than I, so please enlighten me…
There is a lot more for me to go on about but I will add more later to this if this argument picks up.
Again, I apologize for my stratified post, it doesn’t flow that well, I was just kind of ranting a bit because I just got done talking with someone who thinks guns should be highly regulated....