Second Amendment, Militia, (comma) vs Militia

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mr.72

OMDP I think the key here is you are interpreting "bear" to mean "use".

No, i don't mean it to mean use.

http://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary

bear arms
1: to carry or possess arms
2: to serve as a soldier

In this case it is the second part which is what we see in the 2A. There is a high chance that this was actually taken with the meaning that many people put to it from the 2A, so they have used possess because the right to keep arms carries this out.
Certainly the founders used "to serve as a soldier" and "bear arms" as synonyms.

"Bear" is more like "possess".

Which implies that the founders felt the need to write "possess" in two different ways, keep and bear, why? In fact the founders knew and spoke of there being two parts to the 2A, the right to keep and the right to carry, which are not synonyms.

"Use" of arms is not protected by the 2A and is subject to regulation.

Well to an extent, being able to be in the militia and taking your arms there was protected.
 
ConstitutionalCowboy

There are several other words that mean something different in OMDP's world. Reminds me of a line from "Princess Bride":

Not only can i argue for my view of these words, but i can and have presented the evidence on here.

Well, if the Commerce Clause can be used to ban certain weapons from possession by the people, and ban the existence of a weapon, what's keeping them from banning all weapons from the people and/or their very existence?

The 2A.
As i have repeated numerous times. The 2A prevents the govt from taking away the ability of individuals to keep arms, ie own, buy and sell, but prevents the govt taking away the ability of an individual to be in the militia.
 
OMDP

Have you read the preamble to the bill of rights? It's as much law as any other part of the Constitution, passed by 2/3 of Congress and no less than 3/4 of the several state legislatures. It is intent inscribed into law as passed by Congress and ratified by the states, authorized by the Constitution in Article V.

As the amendments are an integral part of the Constitution, they, too, are the supreme law of the land, and act as further declaratory and restrictive clauses. These are articles in addition to, and amendment of the Constitution.

Any power granted to Congress in the Constitution is, therefore, further clarified and/or restricted by these amendments. That is what these amendments do. The Commerce Clause is not immune from these declaratory and restrictive clauses. The Second Amendment singles out and isolates the keeping and bearing of arms from any infringement by the use of any power granted to Congress(as well as any other level of government), and the Commerce Clause is just as so limited as would be the Necessary and Proper clause, or the power of Congress to set standards as to what an arm can weigh or what its caliber can be using any power granted in Clause 5 of Article I, Section 8.

That is the truth of the matter here. The Second Amendment is as clear as the proverbial bell. It's grammatical construction is not in doubt, though subject to malapropism, interpolation with the addition of misnomers, and dissemblance by those bent on vitiation of this sentinel amendment standing guard over the right.

Tell me, though: What is it you fear? If it isn't fear, what is your goal? Your apparent command of the English Language exposes your lack of understanding of the Second Amendment as disingenuous.

Woody
 
As i have repeated numerous times. The 2A prevents the govt from taking away the ability of individuals to keep arms, ie own, buy and sell, but prevents the govt taking away the ability of an individual to be in the militia.

This is a slight variation of the sophisticated collective rights interpretation of the Second Amendment. For years, anti-gunners have been trying to sell the idea that the Second Amendment does nothing to prevent government limits on individual arms ownership as long as individuals have the right to keep and bear arms in relationship to membership in the 'militia' (read National Guard). Under this type of interpretation, the government could ban any firearms but single-shot .22 rifles, except for the availability (albeit tightly controlled) of military weapons to members of the militia.
 
ConstitutionalCowboy

As the amendments are an integral part of the Constitution, they, too, are the supreme law of the land, and act as further declaratory and restrictive clauses. These are articles in addition to, and amendment of the Constitution.

Yes, they restrict, this does not mean that because the 4A says houses that all houses are in some way protected from everything, there is context and the 2A also has its context.

Any power granted to Congress in the Constitution is, therefore, further clarified and/or restricted by these amendments. That is what these amendments do. The Commerce Clause is not immune from these declaratory and restrictive clauses.

If there is no power to take away arms in the constitution, then the 2A would be unnecessary. Do you think the founding fathers were idiots for putting something in that is simply a waste of time?

The Second Amendment singles out and isolates the keeping and bearing of arms from any infringement by the use of any power granted to Congress

Yes it does, it does not single out the arms, it does not single out an individual to be able to own whatever they like without any reason.
An individual cannot be prevented from owning arms, they can continue owning arms even if they cannot get their hands on nukes.

That is the truth of the matter here. The Second Amendment is as clear as the proverbial bell. It's grammatical construction is not in doubt, though subject to malapropism, interpolation with the addition of misnomers, and dissemblance by those bent on vitiation of this sentinel amendment standing guard over the right.

As i have said before, it is not the grammar that is the problem here, it is the context. People assume that bear means to carry, when clearly it does not. It means to serve as a soldier.

Tell me, though: What is it you fear? If it isn't fear, what is your goal? Your apparent command of the English Language exposes your lack of understanding of the Second Amendment as disingenuous.

No fear. My goal is to keep my mind working and alive. Not to get to a point where i care about nothing, think about nothing and end up buy newspapers purely because they have boobies in them like a lot of people.
My command of the English language is not a problem, you may feel you need to be arrogant over this. The clear and simple fact is that the grammar is not a problem.

I have shown that the founders saw bearing arms and serving in the militia as synonyms. You ignore that. What is you fear or goal? I think i know the answer to that, but just because you fear a govt taking your arms away, does not mean you should create a 2A that does not exist, this will lead to people calling for the destruction of the 2A.
The extremism from both right and left on this issue is scary, if they could both realise what the real problems were, education, opportunities and things like this, then they would not need to be so extreme.

Just to present my evidence again.

Mr. Gerry — This declaration of rights, I take it, is intended to secure the people against the mal-administration of the government; if we could suppose that in all cases the rights of the people would be attended to, the occasion for guards of this kind would be removed. Now, I am apprehensive, sir, that this clause would give an opportunity to the people in power to destroy the constitution itself. They can declare who are those religiously scrupulous, and prevent them from bearing arms. What, sir, is the use of a militia? It is to prevent the establishment of a standing army, the bane of liberty. Now it must be evident, that under this provision, together with their other powers, congress could take such measures with respect to a militia, as make a standing army necessary.

Different versions of the Second Amendment

June 8th 1789
The right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed; a well armed and well regulated militia being the best security of a free country; but no person religiously scrupulous of bearing arms shall be compelled to render military service in person.

August 17th 1789
A well regulated militia, composed of the body of the people, being the best security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed, but no person religiously scrupulous shall be compelled to bear arms.

PRESSER v. STATE OF ILLINOIS, 116 U.S. 252 (1886)

We think it clear that the sections under consideration, which only forbid bodies of men to associate together as military organizations, or to drill or parade with arms in cities [116 U.S. 252, 265] and towns unless authorized by law, do not infringe the right of the people to keep and bear arms.

Robertson v. Baldwin, 165 U.S. 275, 280 (1897)

the right of the people to keep and bear arms (article 2) is not infringed by laws prohibiting the carrying of concealed weapons;
 
gc70

This is a slight variation of the sophisticated collective rights interpretation of the Second Amendment.

No it isn't.


For years, anti-gunners have been trying to sell the idea that the Second Amendment does nothing to prevent government limits on individual arms ownership as long as individuals have the right to keep and bear arms in relationship to membership in the 'militia' (read National Guard).

No, the 2A protects individuals to keep arms regardless of whether the militia exists, BUT they have arms in case the militia needs them.
Bearing arms is slightly different, it has to bearing arms within the militia, as bearing arms outside of the militia is not protected. This is because the militia needs arms and personnel.

Under this type of interpretation, the government could ban any firearms but single-shot .22 rifles, except for the availability (albeit tightly controlled) of military weapons to members of the militia.

Maybe, under my argument the govt cannot ban too many weapons to change the market. Ie, if they ban all buit one type of gun then they are acting unconstitutional. If they ban only one type of weapon, then they are not acting unconstitutional (perhaps), this all depends on who is interpreting.
 
If there is no power to take away arms in the constitution, then the 2A would be unnecessary.

I think it was unnecessary in that sense. IIRC, Patrick Henry was concerned that the US power to arm the militia might somehow be used to disarm the militia, so there was the US militia power to be concerned with. But there are no general US gun control powers, gun control powers were reserved to the States.

It seems to turn the USBOR against itself to assume that the feds must have jurisdiction over everything in the USBOR, as if it is an enumeration of federal powers. I believe the intent is just the opposite, to deny federal jurisdiction. It occurs to me that Madison said that one of the objections to a USBOR was that by enumerating "particular exceptions to the grant of power" it would disparage unenumerated rights. But it is your assertion that the Second Amendment is not intended to deny federal gun control powers, but rather it is proof that the feds have gun control powers?
 
Hugh wrote:
I think it was unnecessary in that sense. IIRC, Patrick Henry was concerned that the US power to arm the militia might somehow be used to disarm the militia,

Actually, Henry backed off that statement somewhat latter in the debates. He viewed the primary concern to be negligence rather than malovence... that through penny wise, pound foolish policies they would neglect to properly arm the militia, leaving the militia woefully unprepared in the event of an emergency. He then asserted that the federal power to arm the militia was exclusive, leaving the states helpless to fill the void. The contrary argument used by Madison to rebut Henry was that the power to arm was merely a concurrent power shared with the states.

OMDP wrote:
People assume that bear means to carry, when clearly it does not. It means to serve as a soldier.

Not quite. A more accurate formulation would be "to take up arms". That formulation eliminates the necessity of having a formal army or a "well regulated militia" in which one would bear arms... and explains a lot of the verbage found in state analogs of the 2nd and the proposal to insert limiting language in the 2nd itself concerning "for the common defense".
 
The National Guard is not a militia. It is a part of the Department of Defense.
The Coast Guard is not a militia. It is a part of Homeland Security.
The Boy Scouts are a private party the same as blackwater - also not a militia.

YOU are the militia. If you are reading this and own a firearm welcome aboard.

The Marines are looking for a few good men; however, since you are in the militia you serve a higher calling. The military application of ANY weapon or no weapon at all applies to both the US Army and the militia men of the United States, to protect her shores and her people from tyranny oppression and the will of evil men. It does not matter who the enemy is or what he looks like when he comes; "...against all enemies foreign and domestic..." comes to mind. Whether they be little green men from space or a serving senator - Enemies - will not be allowed to attack our lands, homes or families by any means. Direct or subversive and to that end it is lawful for you to own firearms and carry them openly or discreetly.

Welcome to advanced citizenship.
 
OMDP said:
Yes, they restrict, this does not mean that because the 4A says houses that all houses are in some way protected from everything, there is context and the 2A also has its context.

Boy, oh, boy, this is out there in left field! The Fourth doesn't protect houses, it protects the right of the people to be secure in their houses. The Second prohibits government to infringe upon a right of the people as well. There is no protection in the Fourth for people to keep houses. There is protection in the Second for people to keep guns. That's context for ya!

OMDP said:
If there is no power to take away arms in the constitution, then the 2A would be unnecessary. Do you think the founding fathers were idiots for putting something in that is simply a waste of time?
Hey, it's a guarantee the several states wanted and it was put in the Constitution. There were indeed arguments that such an amendment wasn't necessary, but Madison, in his infinite wisdom, having looked at the protections of rights in the several state's constitutions said ... well, read it for yourself:

Mr. Madison from the Congressional Record of 8 June, 1789, debating the proposal of a Bill of Rights:

It has been said, by way of objection to a bill of rights, by many respectable gentlemen out of doors, and I find opposition on the same principles likely to be made by gentlemen on this floor, that they are unnecessary articles of a Republican Government, upon the presumption that the people have those rights in their own hands, and that is the proper place for them to rest. It would be a sufficient answer to say, that this objection lies against such provisions under the State Governments, as well as under the General Government; and there are, I believe, but few gentlemen who are inclined to push their theory so far as to say that a declaration of rights in those cases is either ineffectual or improper. It has been said, that in the Federal Government they are unnecessary, because the powers are enumerated, and it follows, that all that are not granted by the Constitution are retained; that the Constitution is a bill of powers, the great residuum being the rights of the people; and, therefore, a bill of rights cannot be so necessary as if the residuum was thrown into the hands of the Government. I admit that these arguments are not entirely without foundation; but they are not conclusive to the extent which has been supposed. It is true, the powers of the General Government are circumscribed, they are directed to particular objects; but even if Government keeps within those limits, it has certain discretionary powers with respect to the means, which may admit of abuse to a certain extent, in the same manner as the powers of the State Governments under their constitutions may to an indefinite extent; because in the Constitution of the United States, there is a clause granting to Congress the power to make all laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into execution all the powers vested in the Government of the United States, or in any department or officer thereof; this enables them to fulfill every purpose for which the Government was established. Now, may not laws be considered necessary and proper by Congress, for it is for them to judge of the necessity and propriety to accomplish those special purposes which they may have in contemplation, which laws in themselves are neither necessary nor proper; as well as improper laws could be enacted by the State Legislatures, for fulfilling the more extended objects of those Governments. I will state an instance, which I think in point, and proves that this might be the case. The General Government has a right to pass all laws which shall be necessary to collect its revenue; the means for enforcing the collection are within the direction of the Legislature: may not general warrants be considered necessary for this purpose, as well as for some purposes which it was supposed at the framing of their constitutions the State Governments had in view? If there was reason for restraining the State Governments from exercising this power, there is like reason for restraining the Federal Government.

It may be said, indeed it has been said, that a bill of rights is not necessary, because the establishment of this Government has not repealed those declarations of rights which are added to the several State constitutions; that those rights of the people, which had been established by the most solemn act, could not be annihilated by a subsequent act of that people, who meant, and declared at the head of the instrument, that they ordained and established a new system, for the express purpose of securing to themselves and posterity the liberties they had gained by an arduous conflict.

I admit the force of this observation, but I do not look upon it to be conclusive. In the first place, it is too uncertain ground to leave this provision upon, if a provision is at all necessary to secure rights so important as many of those I have mentioned are conceived to be, by the public in general, as well as those in particular who opposed the adoption of this Constitution. Besides, some States have no bills of rights, there are others provided with very defective ones, and there are others whose bills of rights are not only defective, but absolutely improper; instead of securing some in the full extent which republican principles would require, they limit them too much to agree with the common ideas of liberty.

It has been objected also against a bill of rights, that, by enumerating particular exceptions to the grant of power, it would disparage those rights which were not placed in that enumeration; and it might follow, by implication, that those rights which were not singled out, were intended to be assigned into the hands of the General Government, and were consequently insecure. This is one of the most plausible arguments I have ever heard urged against the admission of a bill of rights into this system; but, I conceive, that it may be guarded against. I have attempted it, as gentlemen may see by turning to the last clause of the fourth resolution.

It has been said, that it is unnecessary to load the Constitution with this provision, because it was not found effectual in the constitution of the particular States. It is true, there are a few particular States in which some of the most valuable articles have not, at one time or other, been violated; but it does not follow but they may have, to a certain degree, a salutary effect against the abuse of power. If they are incorporated into the Constitution, independent tribunals of justice will consider themselves in a peculiar manner the guardians of those rights; they will be an impenetrable bulwark against every assumption of power in the Legislative or Executive; they will be naturally led to resist every encroachment upon rights expressly stipulated for in the Constitution by the declaration of rights. Besides this security, there is a great probability that such a declaration in the federal system would be enforced; because the State Legislatures will jealously and closely watch the operations of this Government, and be able to resist with more effect every assumption of power, than any other power on earth can do; and the greatest opponents to a Federal Government admit the State Legislatures to be sure guardians of the people's liberty. I conclude, from this view of the subject, that it will be proper in itself, and highly politic, for the tranquillity of the public mind, and the stability of the Government, that we should offer something, in the form I have proposed, to be incorporated in the system of Government, as a declaration of the rights of the people.

Here is the source on this web site.​

As i have said before, it is not the grammar that is the problem here, it is the context. People assume that bear means to carry, when clearly it does not. It means to serve as a soldier.

This proves that what gc70 has said, that this is just a variation of the sophisticated collective rights interpretation of the Second Amendment, is right on target. It also follows what you have written here:


No, the 2A protects individuals to keep arms regardless of whether the militia exists, BUT they have arms in case the militia needs them.
Bearing arms is slightly different, it has to bearing arms within the militia, as bearing arms outside of the militia is not protected. This is because the militia needs arms and personnel.

You have undeniably said that bearing arms outside the militia is not protected. Bullocks! It's "the right to keep and bear arms", not "the right to keep arms and the right on occasion of militia service to bear arms". This latter context does not exist in the Second Amendment. The right is not parsed into two separate rights in the Amendment. It's one right with two aspects. Both aspects of the right of the people are equally exempted from infringement by government.


OMDP said:
I have shown that the founders saw bearing arms and serving in the militia as synonyms.

Poppycock. Robbers and murders are not serving in any militia while bearing arms in the commission of their crimes! Bearing arms is just that! Bearing them! You can certainly bear arms in the militia - and in the regular armed services as well. I can bear my arms to the gun range, too. The word "bear" means essentially the same thing today as it did then. In order for "bear arms" to mean anything other than to carry arms, or produce or bring forth arms, it would have to be the name of something, a noun naming militia service, the act of serving in the militia. That is service. One would bear arms(verb) in the service(noun) of their country.



OMDP said:
You ignore that. What is you fear or goal? I think i know the answer to that, but just because you fear a govt taking your arms away, does not mean you should create a 2A that does not exist, this will lead to people calling for the destruction of the 2A.

I don't fear government taking my arms away. Government should fear taking my arms away, for it would be those in government who are in violation of the Second Amendment. You yourself admit that we the people have the right to at least keep arms free from government infringement. That part of the Second Amendment exists in your mind, doesn't it? Keep is benign and innocuous. Well, so is bear.


OMDP said:
The extremism from both right and left on this issue is scary, if they could both realise what the real problems were, education, opportunities and things like this, then they would not need to be so extreme.
What, pray tell, is extreme about exercising a right and expecting no interference from government, especially since government is prohibited to interfere with said right? Is it extreme for me to exercise my freedom of speech and not expect or suffer abridgment from government? Is it extreme for me to refuse law enforcement personnel, lacking a warrant, entry into my home?

The snipit from Presser you quoted does not deal with the individual right of a person to keep and bear arms. Rather, it deals with an organization acting outside the civil authority. Had this group obtained permission from the civil authority, or had no law prohibiting such military organizations been on the books, nothing would ever have come of the parading and drilling by these men.

The best part of Presser is the following:

"It is undoubtedly true that all citizens capable of bearing arms constitute the reserved military force or reserve militia of the United States as well as of the States, and in view of this prerogative of the general government, as well as of its general powers, the States cannot, even laying the constitutional provision in question out of view, prohibit the people from keeping and bearing arms, so as to deprive the United States of their rightful resource for maintaining the public security, and disable the people from performing their duty to the general government. But, as already stated, we think it clear that the sections under consideration do not have this effect."

This says the states may not prohibit the people from keeping and bearing arms even without the Second Amendment.

It appears you have adopted the Wikiepedia version of Presser which I quote as follows:

"However, the high court stated that there is a limit upon state restriction of firearms ownership, in that they may not disarm the people to such an extent that there is no remaining armed militia force for the general government to call upon:"​

This "rendition" or "interpretation" of Presser is a malapropism using the phrase "to such an extent" which does not appear in Presser. Presser says, "so as to deprive". "(T)o such an extent" is only a definition of the word "so". If you wish to replace all the words being replaced in the Wickiepedia rendition, you have, "to such an extent in the same way that is in comparison with to prevent from using". The two phrases are not synonymous. In context, "so as to deprive" in Presser means "because it would prevent" the United States from having this rightful resource.

The snipit from Robertson v Baldwin is so blatantly contradictory that it makes me laugh! It's like saying my right to eat is not infringed by laws that forbid chewing food with my mouth open - especially when there is a provision in the Constitution that says my right to eat shall not be infringed.

Woody


I see it clearly as fact. Words mean things. Just as numbers have value, you can add, subtract, multiply and divide them. I just do the math. B.E. Wood
 
OMDP, your point of view on the 2nd amendment stems from a person who has not embraced, nor fully understood, the American way. America was set to become the greatest nation ever in the history of man kind because of the simple fact that its constitution encourages the people living in America to strive for individual freedom and reach for their full potential, tyrants and dictators being defined legal game. In that situation, where you are given the best opportunities possible to live your life the way you want to live it, it follows naturally that it's in the people's interest to defend that situation. The founders understood this, like every sane person would, and to make sure that the new country in the west would survive tyrants and dictators the Bill of Rights was added to the constitution they wrote.

OMDP, in your case, living in UK, being born with the conception that the King is ALL and he can do to you what he wants for the "common good", or however he wants to put it, you fear what would happen could people on the streets in UK run about with weapons and strive for personal success, the orders of the King ignored. Weapons in America don't fill that function since there is nothing to revolt against here. We are already free. It's the freedom itself we want to protect. Because politicians come in under "potential threats" they shall, and so it says in the Constitution, not infringe on the right to carry arms. OMDP, hand on your heart, when someone says the word "polititian" to you, don't you in your head envision a big clueless idiot, eager to gather power and richness from the people, for personal use?

The militia by definition is not armed by the government. A government which is authorized to give you everything you need can also take away from you everything you have. We in America don't look at life the way you do, OMDP. Life to you is to slave under your government. Fine. Continue doing that, OMDP. Don't come here and impose your personal hell on us. We live free and we are going to protect that privilege.

You didn't understand my question "Would it help America and the Americans to have an Obama-approved militia?" By not understanding that question it shows that you are not in the ballpark with your game. You are in UK, stuck with your idea of what true freedom is about. Talking about freedom, you and I, we are not talking about the same thing. Of course it will be difficult for us to come to consensus about what the right and freedom to carry arms means. It's like when you, OMDP, read comments from Chinese on what freedom to them is, I suppose.
 
The 2nd amendment recognizes (In the context of the time period) the importance of local/state militias. No one seems to argue this point.

I have a question here: Who was responsible for arming these militias? I've always thought that these militias, when called up, were composed of "people" (Mainly volunteers) who brought their own weapons with them. Am I correct in this belief? If this is true, then amendment 2 is saying that it is essential that individual people have the right to possess weapons/arms. And, since self-protection and hunting for food were essential functions in those times, it would seem foolish to me to think that this didn't include carrying and using these weapons as part of daily life (Outside of militia duty).

Would like to hear your response to my ramblings.
 
…If this is true, then amendment 2 is saying that it is essential that individual people have the right to possess weapons/arms. And, self-protection and hunting for food were essential functions in those times, it would seem foolish to me to think that this didn't include carrying and using these weapons as part of daily life (Outside of militia duty).

Careful here…you don’t want to fall into the trap many politicians try to set for you.
The 2nd Amendment isn’t about duck hunting and never was.
There are a lot of folks in your government that would like you to forget the true purpose of the 2nd!
 
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Agree about the duck hunting part - lapse of attention on my part. Thanks for the Dr. Lund writings link.
 
Hugh damnright

I think it was unnecessary in that sense. IIRC, Patrick Henry was concerned that the US power to arm the militia might somehow be used to disarm the militia, so there was the US militia power to be concerned with. But there are no general US gun control powers, gun control powers were reserved to the States.

Therefore the 2A was introduced for a reason, to prevent arms from being taken from the militia. They did this by protecting individuals.
However certain members of society are prevented from keeping and bearing arms.
Also in Miller they stated that they could not decide because there was no evidence that the weapon had a connection with the militia.

It seems to turn the USBOR against itself to assume that the feds must have jurisdiction over everything in the USBOR, as if it is an enumeration of federal powers. I believe the intent is just the opposite, to deny federal jurisdiction. It occurs to me that Madison said that one of the objections to a USBOR was that by enumerating "particular exceptions to the grant of power" it would disparage unenumerated rights. But it is your assertion that the Second Amendment is not intended to deny federal gun control powers, but rather it is proof that the feds have gun control powers?

The feds DO have power, that is why the 2A was introduced. The feds do have the power to regulate arms sales through the commerce clause, and they do have the power to disarm the militia. Imagine calling up the militia in order just to disarm them.
Now in present day USA most people ARE in the militia, the unorganised militia, which in theory the feds can take the arms away from.
 
Legaleagle

Not quite. A more accurate formulation would be "to take up arms". That formulation eliminates the necessity of having a formal army or a "well regulated militia" in which one would bear arms... and explains a lot of the verbage found in state analogs of the 2nd and the proposal to insert limiting language in the 2nd itself concerning "for the common defense".

I don't believe there is a right to take up arms outside of the militia. I think there is an expection to do this in the event of problems. They protect the right to have arms so if there is a need they are there and the people can rise up against the govt, but protecting the right to take up arms against a govt is dangerous. Imagine now, Bush makes a law banning fairy cakes, the people decide he is in charge and the govt has gone bad. They can then say they have the right to rise up and take down perfectly legitimate govt (i can't believe i said that, bush + legitimate govt in the same sentence ugg!)
The keeping of arms' main purpose is to allow for weapons so the militia will have them, the bearing is so there will be available personnel.
Anything more and you will have problems on your hands.
 
ConstitutionalCowboy

Boy, oh, boy, this is out there in left field! The Fourth doesn't protect houses, it protects the right of the people to be secure in their houses. The Second prohibits government to infringe upon a right of the people as well. There is no protection in the Fourth for people to keep houses. There is protection in the Second for people to keep guns. That's context for ya!

The point i was making was, that just because the word "arms" is written in the 2A, does not mean all arms are protected, just as house is written in the 4A does not mean houses are protected.

Hey, it's a guarantee the several states wanted and it was put in the Constitution. There were indeed arguments that such an amendment wasn't necessary, but Madison, in his infinite wisdom, having looked at the protections of rights in the several state's constitutions said ... well, read it for yourself:

Some people seemed to believe they did not need protections from govt power. Others did. Generally it was a 2/1 federalists to anti-federalists and the federalists won. But the anti-federalists wanted some protections from the monster the federalists had created.

Fact is, in the debates in congress they were worried that putting in a clause that would allow religiously scrupulous individuals or groups to not be forced to serve in the militia, this would lead the govt to say all individuals could be claimed to be religiously scrupulous and so prevent individuals being in the well regulated militia.
They feared that certain things could allow the govt to make the militia ineffective. Not all individuals are protected to bear arms, but there are enough for the militia to be effective.

You have undeniably said that bearing arms outside the militia is not protected. Bullocks! It's "the right to keep and bear arms", not "the right to keep arms and the right on occasion of militia service to bear arms". This latter context does not exist in the Second Amendment. The right is not parsed into two separate rights in the Amendment. It's one right with two aspects. Both aspects of the right of the people are equally exempted from infringement by government.

Simple fact for you, the founders used bear arms and serve in the militia as synonyms. The fact is in PRESSER v. STATE OF ILLINOIS, 116 U.S. 252 (1886) they said that men drilling or parading with arms outside of the militia was NOT protected by the 2A.
Fact is, all the evidence points to the fact that bearing arms means serving in the militia. All the evidence also points to the fact that carry and conceal is NOT protected.
Your theory that all arms are protected, would mean that all bearing arms is protected. Ie, the feds cannot prevent you from carrying arms in any way you choose, carry and conceal for example. Not so. Because bear does not mean carry in the context of the 2A, never has done and never will.

You can certainly bear arms in the militia - and in the regular armed services as well. I can bear my arms to the gun range, too.

Yes you can, however this is not the context of the 2A. You can say that you can bear arms by carrying and concealing, yet this is not protected, i have provided evidence to this.

What, pray tell, is extreme about exercising a right and expecting no interference from government, especially since government is prohibited to interfere with said right? Is it extreme for me to exercise my freedom of speech and not expect or suffer abridgment from government? Is it extreme for me to refuse law enforcement personnel, lacking a warrant, entry into my home?

What is extreme about taking a clause, making it seem like it says something else??

The snipit from Presser you quoted does not deal with the individual right of a person to keep and bear arms. Rather, it deals with an organization acting outside the civil authority.

Yes. It says that there cannot be groups of indiividuals acting as militias. Ie, to be able to bear arms in a military group is only protected when a person is in the well regulated militia, not any other.

Had this group obtained permission from the civil authority, or had no law prohibiting such military organizations been on the books, nothing would ever have come of the parading and drilling by these men.

You can do things that aren't illegal, that does not mean you are protected by the BoR from doing these things.

The best part of Presser is the following:

"It is undoubtedly true that all citizens capable of bearing arms constitute the reserved military force or reserve militia of the United States as well as of the States, and in view of this prerogative of the general government, as well as of its general powers, the States cannot, even laying the constitutional provision in question out of view, prohibit the people from keeping and bearing arms, so as to deprive the United States of their rightful resource for maintaining the public security, and disable the people from performing their duty to the general government. But, as already stated, we think it clear that the sections under consideration do not have this effect."

Possibly but then it has no bearing on the debate between you or I. I accept that individuals can keep and bear arms, where we differ is the context and meaning of the term bear, and the limitations upon keeping.


The snipit from Robertson v Baldwin is so blatantly contradictory that it makes me laugh! It's like saying my right to eat is not infringed by laws that forbid chewing food with my mouth open - especially when there is a provision in the Constitution that says my right to eat shall not be infringed.

I don't see how. The context of this is clear, the wording is clear. Also the NRA support carry and conceal licensing. If it were a protected right, would they do this? Doubt it.
 
Orange Magnum

OMDP, your point of view on the 2nd amendment stems from a person who has not embraced, nor fully understood, the American way.

Yes, but maybe this is a good thing, i can look at this topic from a semi-non-biased point of view.
However the american way often looks like, we'll take what supports what we want and ignore what we don't want.

In 1776 the founding fathers said that all men are created equal. Yet slavery, then segregation hit the blacks, with a lot of racism coming from the presidential elections happening now. Many hispanics and whites won't vote for obama and many blacks voting for obama because he is black, rather than his policies. Homosexuals are treated like second class citizens in many cases today as well. (You may have an opinion for or against what i say, but there is no point in arguing this here and now.)
The same i see with the BoR, people take what they like and discard what they don't like.

You didn't understand my question "Would it help America and the Americans to have an Obama-approved militia?" By not understanding that question it shows that you are not in the ballpark with your game.

That is a very arrogant statement. If you explain what an Obama approved militia is, it could mean several things.
Obama as president and him calling up the militia.
A militia whose rules are changed by Obama as president.
A militia which Obama supports that is not the well regulated militia.

You are in UK, stuck with your idea of what true freedom is about. Talking about freedom, you and I, we are not talking about the same thing. Of course it will be difficult for us to come to consensus about what the right and freedom to carry arms means. It's like when you, OMDP, read comments from Chinese on what freedom to them is, I suppose
.

Again a very arrogant statement. Where do you think your ideas of freedom came from?
 
Where do you think your ideas of freedom came from?

They came as a result of oppression of these freedoms by your country.

I think that's the point. Historically speaking, the founding of the USA resulted from a rebellion against England, so the foundational principles are in opposition. While certainly the founding fathers of America held some beliefs that were taught in England, it is clear that they formed some new ideas regarding the value and nature of freedom upon settlement in the new country, strong enough ideas that it led to a revolution and foundation of a completely different country with explicit focus on individual freedom and liberty.

Of course this is not exactly the America we live in today, and many of us are pressing for a return to the fundamental values of liberty and freedom for all men, which are defined in our Constitution. One of these is the right to "keep and bear" arms, which is regularly being infringed.
 
Just read this thread while getting ready to HOPEFULLY see that the Heller decision is released today!!

Interesting discussion.

OMDP: We got our ideas of freedom from living under the King's rules and from many English principles IMHO.

You stated this in an older post:

In the Miller case they said

"In the absence of any evidence tending to show that possession or use of a 'shotgun having a barrel of less than eighteen inches in length' at this time has some reasonable relationship to the preservation or efficiency of a well regulated militia, we cannot say that the Second Amendment guarantees the right to keep and bear such an instrument."

This suggests that the supreme court accepted that a gun is not protected, but rather an individual is. This gun may or may not have been legal, regardless of who owned it.

I agree.

Under Miller, supra, automatic rifles would be legal. I have no problem with the Miller decision relative to allowing individual ownership of weapons needed to effectively guard against tyranny, invaders and lawlessness.

That would still allow individuals to own a broad array of firearms IMHO.

You state the 2nd Amendment has a militia component. I definitely agree with that. There is no question that the militia is part of the 2nd Amendment IMHO. No one has ever really argued that part of the 2nd Amendment no matter which side of the gun debate they fell under.

The militia is the people, and the people are individuals who's right to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed.

Keeping that principle within the limiitations provided for in Miller, supra, is fine with me.

I'm still a little confused about your opinion relative to the 2nd Amendment not applying to individual law abiding citizens?

To me, it has been well documented that, at the time the 2nd Amendment was written, "militias" were comprised of ordinary individuals and the "people" were defined as individuals.

Had they used the word "subject" instead of "people" I would understand your conclusions better.
 
A local talk radio show host (Jim Quin) puts it the best trems for me he says " The Second Adendment is the reset button for the Constitution"
 
That's it, everyone knows politics are forbidden at THR. But you all just had to drag the presidential race into this thread.

Jeff
 
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