ConstitutionalCowboy
The FBI does an important service investigating crime. Its powers are concomitant with Article II, Section 3, in that the FBI works for the President to aid him in taking care that the laws be faithfully executed. The FBI is not supposed to enforce the law, just investigate violations of the law. Any enforcement the FBI does is unconstitutional. Enforcement is up to Congress to call forth the militia to that end, and then the President shall command the militia to enforce the law.
The president is the executive and has the executive powers of the US govt.
If he can check to see whether the laws are being carried out or not, but not act on this, then what would the point be?
Surely the system of checks and balances allow the president to do this for a reason.
What happens when state law enforcement bodies cannot provide for the safety of the USA as a whole? Is it the job of the militia to do this?
(Though i do not doubt it would be quite easy to move the FBI over to the militia and have it permanently in the power of the president).
As far as I know, no one has challenged the existence of the FBI, or any of its usurpations of power. The Court can't simply look at something such as this. It only has appellate jurisdiction in such matters.
Surely being arrested by the FBI could be considered reasonable grounds to claim the arrest was illegal. But no one has done this.
The Second Amendment forbids government to infringe upon my right to keep and bear arms. Banning an arm infringes my right to keep and bear it.
No it doesn't. You can still keep and bear arms if one gun is banned.
It doesn't protect arms at all, but my right to them what ever they may be.
Your right to keep and bear arms is protected, your right to keep and bear any arms you choose does not exist.
Bearing arms is limited to the militia. Keeping arms can be considered to be limited to arms that can serve a purpose in the militia, depending on how you view Miller, but the fact is, what is protected is the militia through individuals having arms. Shall not be infringed does not mean you cannot be prevented from having your right infringed upon after due process.
The right to religion still applies in prison, the RKBA does not apply after prison. There is a difference here, and that difference is the reason for the 2A, to protect the 2A. Now, as long as there is a good enough market for arms, then the govt is not acting unconstitutionally in banning certain types of arms.
If government could forbid me to keep and bear a certain arm, it could do the same thing if there were only one arm in existence. Sorry, no can do!
No, it could not. As i have said, it cannot change the market to force up the price of weapons to a prohibitive level for example. It can ban certain types of arms, but arms have to be available for the normal citizens to be able to buy. Ie, that is more than one type of weapon.
It isn't about the state, or government, but about the people in this country. If the government gets out of hand, oppressive, tyrannical, or too self important, then yes, any constitution CREATED AND RATIFIED BY THE PEOPLE should have the means in it for the people - at a minimum - to amend it as in Article V, or overthrow it with the arms secured in the hands of the people as provided by the Second Amendment. We created the Union, we can take it out - and make a better one in its stead. The first sign that a government is out of hand, oppressive, leaning toward tyranny, and too self-important is when it starts to disarm the people.
Yes, but also a legitimate govt should not be taken down by an illegitimate force. That is why bearing arms outside of the militia is NOT protected. That is why certain types of arms can be banned.
Clauses 2 through 17 would not be needed; clause 18 being incorporated. Here is what Hamilton concluded :
Not at all. The General Welfare and Common Defence part do not grant total power to carry these out without regard to what is written below. Hamilton is saying that "the general Interests of learning of Agriculture of Manufactures and of Commerce are within the sphere of the national Councils as far as regards an application of Money", ie the power to raise taxes for this purpose exist within article 1 section 8.
Now look at the other parts of the section.
To provide for organising, arming and disciplining the militia.
This gave congress the power to arm and disarm. Now, if an individual were called up into service it could be assumed the feds could disarm this person. Hence the 2A.
This section deals with arms. The power to disarm exists. Consider that the feds can decide who is in the militia, ie, most americans are in the unorganised militia.
Without the 2A, individuals could have been disarmed. Now they cannot before due process. But there is a difference between disarming and reducing what guns they can and cannot buy.
The commerce clause deals with the sale of arms. The feds can ban gun from being bought, sold and manufactured if they have anything to do with interstate commerce.
Neither of these go against the 2A, however the 2A exists because of these.
Why not? Let the free market and suing the pants off the manufacturer put such arms manufacturers out of business. It works against crappy autos, ineffective drugs, and slipshod doctors! Why should arms manufacturers be treated any differently?
There are many cases when they are not treated differently. The free market does not reign supreme in the US, anti-competative laws and the like exist.