Doesn’t the law in Texas give homeowners the right to use deadly force against anyone engaged in the commission of a felony? Some years ago I read an account of a homeowner killing a thief as he ran away with his television. No charges were proffered against him.
I don't recall the law saying anything about a felony per se as not all such transgressions require felony level status. For example, somebody pinching your beater $25 bicycle off your front porch would not rise to a felony status, but if it was being stolen at night (which is a key stipulation of the law that you left out), then lethal force may be used in circumstances where you have no other reasonable expectation of recovering the property otherwise.
Here are the specific, relevant laws...
§ 9.41. Protection of One's Own Property
(a) A person in lawful possession of land or tangible, movable property is justified in using force against another when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to prevent or terminate the other's trespass on the land or unlawful interference with the property.
(b) A person unlawfully dispossessed of land or tangible, movable property by another is justified in using force against the other when and to the degree the actor reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to reenter the land or recover the property if the actor uses the force immediately or in fresh pursuit after the dispossession and:
(1) the actor reasonably believes the other had no claim of right when he dispossessed the actor; or
(2) the other accomplished the dispossession by using force, threat, or fraud against the actor.
§ 9.42. Deadly Force to Protect Property
A person is justified in using deadly force against another to protect land or tangible, movable property:
(1) if he would be justified in using force against the other under Section 9.41; and
(2) when and to the degree he reasonably believes the deadly force is immediately necessary:
(A) to prevent the other's imminent commission of arson, burglary, robbery, aggravated robbery,
theft during the nighttime, or criminal mischief during the nighttime; or
(B) to prevent the other who is fleeing immediately after committing burglary, robbery, aggravated robbery, or theft during the nighttime from escaping with the property; and
(3) he reasonably believes that:
(A) the land or property cannot be protected or recovered by any other means; or
(B) the use of force other than deadly force to protect or recover the land or property would expose the actor or another to a substantial risk of death or serious bodily injury.
I believe that this law actually goes back to British common law about crimes at night.