House Panel clears National Carry

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Bubba613 said:
So lemme see: Heller "unfettered" our rights, even while acknowledging that states could put legitimate restrictions on firearms.
This bill recognizes "unconstitutional" permits, even though Heller, which supposedly unfettered our rights, says permits are perfectly Constitutional.

OK, Bubba, show us where in DC v. Heller the Court said states could put "legitimate" (or any) restrictions on the RKBA.

Woody
 
You are still saying there is a scope of "regulation" that is permissible. I do not. The Second Amendment leaves no room or "loop hole"(to coin a phrase the Left loves to use) for any law infringing upon the keeping and bearing of arms.
Perhaps some day, a court will agree with you. And no one will be happier than I will if that happens. So far, however, this has not happened.

Here's the end of that exchange.
 
OK, Bubba, show us where in DC v. Heller the Court said states could put "legitimate" (or any) restrictions on the RKBA.
You're joking, right? It's in Paragraph 2 of the holding, right at the beginning.
 
Here it comes...
Is this the part where someone seizes on some chance phrase that runs counter to the explicit holding to claim something that legal scholars haven't seen?
If so, count me out.
 
Bubba613 said:
Is this the part where someone seizes on some chance phrase that runs counter to the explicit holding to claim something that legal scholars haven't seen?
If so, count me out.

You must read and absorb it all. Anything less such as taking any one paragraph out of the whole is to take it out of context, and I don't think anything in the DC v. Heller decision is there by chance. Their ideologies aside, I don't think any of the Justices are anything less than deliberate. In that respect, I wouldn't consider any of them to be less deliberate than I am, and they are on The Bench and I'm only on a soap box.

Don't count yourself out just yet, Bubba. Legal scholars have seen it, and seen it in its whole context. Antonin Scalia wrote it and four other Justices backed it up. There's five legal scholars for you right there!

Woody
 
Well, how does a degree or a position make one infallible?

Can't anyone just read the Constitution anymore? It says exactly what it says and only what it says, In case it becomes necessary to change it, it provides a process for amendment. Aside from that, it still says what it says, and only what it says.

For starters it doesn't give any court the power to interpret it. The Supreme Court declared itself empowered to do so--the Founders did not.
 
OK, the Court has no power to interpret the Constitution, because the Constitution didn't grant it the power to do so. It doesn't seem to have granted it to any other body, either. So nobody has the power to interpret the Constitution. Not the Supreme Court nor the inferior courts, not you, not me, not anybody.

How, exactly, is that system supposed to work?
 
For starters it doesn't give any court the power to interpret it. The Supreme Court declared itself empowered to do so--the Founders did not.

Perhaps you disagree, but John Marshall argued in Marbury v. Madison that judicial review is essentially an inherent power of the Court.

The following quotes from Marbury offer a good summary of his opinion:
So, if a law be in opposition to the Constitution, if both the law and the Constitution apply to a particular case, so that the Court must either decide that case conformably to the law, disregarding the Constitution, or conformably to the Constitution, disregarding the law, the Court must determine which of these conflicting rules governs the case. This is of the very essence of judicial duty.

If, then, the Courts are to regard the Constitution, and the Constitution is superior to any ordinary act of the Legislature, the Constitution, and not such ordinary act, must govern the case to which they both apply.
Thus, the particular phraseology of the Constitution of the United States confirms and strengthens the principle, supposed to be essential to all written Constitutions, that a law repugnant to the Constitution is void, and that courts, as well as other departments, are bound by that instrument.

Call me crazy, but I buy Marshall's argument.
 
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You must read and absorb it all. Anything less such as taking any one paragraph out of the whole is to take it out of context, and I don't think anything in the DC v. Heller decision is there by chance.
It is explicitly in the holding, which is the operative part of the decision. You are deceiving yourself to think otherwise.
 
ttolhurst,

Do we need someone to interpret a stop sign? It says "stop," and without any legal scholars or politicians to hold our hand or guide our thoughts, we know it means "stop."

Every time we pass a stop sign and don't stop--unless a lawfully defined temporary overrule is in place (a policeman, for example)--we're breaking the law.

The Founders meant for the Constitution to be read in the same manner, including 2A. They created a process to change what it says--to make it say something different--but not a process by which any individual or group is empowered to split hairs or read between the lines regarding what it currently says. They also did not give any court the power to act as that policeman we saw above, temporarily overruling the stop sign.

No such power. None. It isn't there. 2A means exactly what it says.
 
Bubba, Beatledog, et al: what well-regulated militia do you belong to?
Membership in a militia is not required to be protected by the 2A. That is explicitly in Heller.
 
The unorganized militia is every armed citizen of the United States.

Thanks for playing, try again :)

The reserve militia or unorganized militia, also created by the Militia Act of 1903 which presently consist of every able-bodied man of at least 17 and under 45 years of age who are not members of the National Guard or Naval Militia. (that is, anyone who would be eligible for a draft).
 
But you are the ones saying all we need is the Second, no interpretations necessary, but now you are saying an interpretation is necessary to validate your statements.

IF the second means "exactly what it says", then there is that "well-regulated part so many exclude. IF it is open to Judicial review and interpretation, then it could also go against you, depending on who makes up the court. Decisions like Heller have been overturned before down the road


unorganized militia
where does this "unorganized" militia come from? Not from the Second
Thanks for playing, try again
backatcha
 
There is no 'militia' now-a-days.

In 1903 (the Militia act of 1903) split "the militia" into 2 separate groups, the Organized, and the Reserve (Unorganized). They are both still parts of the original "Militia."

Beard, Charles Austin: Readings in American Government and Politics, Page 308. Macmillan, 1909. "Sec. 1. That the militia...shall be divided into two classes...the organized militia, to be known as the National Guard...and the remainder to be known as the Reserve Militia."
Don't ignore my quotes :)
 
But you are the ones saying all we need is the Second, no interpretations necessary, but now you are saying an interpretation is necessary to validate your statements.
I dont recall ever saying that. Other people do, ignoring the idea that the constitution gets interpreted all the time, and paying attention to the history of interpretation is crucial.
I suppose Heller could be overturned down the road. So what?
 
cbrgator,

You posted only some of the most pertinent parts of Marbury v, Madison. You forgot the part where the Court said:

In some cases then, the Constitution must be looked into by the judges. And if they can open it at all, what part of it are they forbidden to read or to obey?

...(T)o read and obey? Doesn't sound lie "interpret" to me.

And then there is this:

From these and many other selections which might be made, it is apparent that the framers of the Constitution contemplated that instrument as a rule for the government of courts, as well as of the Legislature.

Sounds like the Court - as well as of the Legislature - must abide the Constitution and not "interpret" it. Especially when the Court believes it must read and obey the Constitution.

And of course:

Thus, the particular phraseology of the Constitution of the United States confirms and strengthens the principle, supposed to be essential to all written Constitutions, that a law repugnant to the Constitution is void, and that courts, as well as other departments, are bound by that instrument.

That doesn't sound like only the Courts get to look into the Constitution, read, and obey it.

Bubba613 said:
Membership in a militia is not required to be protected by the 2A. That is explicitly in Heller.

That is also - and previously - stated in the Second Amendment where it says the right of the people (people being the plural of person) to keep and bear arms, ...

And besides, a militia or a state does not have rights, only the people (the persons) in it have rights. A militia has power subject to the control and sovereignty of a state, and a state has power as codified in its constitution, and said constitution is subject to the sovereignty, will, and the right of the people to alter it as they see fit as codified in said constitution.

Woody
 
Do we need someone to interpret a stop sign? It says "stop," and without any legal scholars or politicians to hold our hand or guide our thoughts, we know it means "stop."

And if I argue that "stop" doesn't really mean stop when it's 3:00 in the morning, and there's not another car in sight for miles, what then? If nobody is empowered to determine the meaning of "stop", and my interpretation is as good as anyone's, of what use is the stop sign?
Every time we pass a stop sign and don't stop--unless a lawfully defined temporary overrule is in place (a policeman, for example)--we're breaking the law.

No, no, I disagree. Clearly the intent of the stop sign is to allow the orderly and safe passage of traffic. Surely, the sign was never intended to require vehicles to stop when there is demonstrably no traffic whatsoever; this is not the situation for which the sign was created or installed. Do I win?

The Founders meant for the Constitution to be read in the same manner, including 2A.

So what happens when you and Chuck Schumer disagree about what the 2nd Amendment means?
 
Bubba613 said:
The plural of person is persons. See for example Article I Section 9.

Also see Webster's Universal Dictionary ant Thesaurus:

people n

the body of enfranchised citizens(plural) of a state;a person's family, relatives(plural); the persons(plural) of a certain place, group, or class; persons(plural) considered indefinitely; human beings(plural); (pl) all the persons(plural) of a racial or ethnic group, typically having a common language, institutions, homes, and culture. *vt to populate with people.​

At the time the Constitution was written, Johnson's Dictionary of the English Language:1755 says the following:

People

i. A nation; those(plural) who compose a community.

2. The vulgar

3. The commonality(plural) 1. The common people; the people of the lower rank. 2. The bulk of mankind.; not the princes(plural) or nobles(plural).

4. Persons(plural) of a particular class.

5. Men(plural), or persons(plural) in general. In this sense, the word people is used indefinitely, like ou in French.​

See?

Woody
 
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